Yes, this point has to be addressed by any mental monism. Someone can report memories of "diminishing" QE while undergoing general anaesthesia , followed by an inference of "missing time", and reason (albeit with a necessary apriori that a QE-independent reality exists) that there was a period in time whereby "I" became completely devoid of QE.
I believe the question goes deeper. As I understand, QEs have always "content". Everything points, so far, that this "content" is provided by the senses, and controlled by the brain. Without them, it is very difficult to say that there could be any QEs at all.
But is that inference justified? Reports only speak of "diminishing" QE and the inference of QE-independent existence is an experienced memory or report. In other words, "unconsciousness" is only ever reported from consciousness! That may seem patently obvious to say but I see it as a starting point from which any inference about QE-independent reality must argue from. And I believe that any such argument is circular in that QE-independent reality must be assumed first in order for the argument to even get off the ground.
You are correct. In fact, let me tell you that a "state of consciousness" can be achieved in which the memory loss does not happen. Its called Advaita, or "non duality consciousness". In order to TRY to put this in words I can say that the body have experiences, then the body goes to sleep, sometimes it dreams, sometimes not... but QEs are always present. Note that Im not talking about an "I" who is always there, there is nobody left, no duality, no separation, just what could be called "noumenal QEs" (believe me, words cant reach that far, this is a primitive attempt, from language, to express "THAT").
I may have misinterpreted your position, but are you proposing an QE-independent reality?
Yes. Despite what I just said, it is clear to me that the "regularities of experience" are independent from observers. QEs are related to those regularities, but do not shape them, so to speak.
What I think is that "unconsciousness" is a nonsense. There is no QE-independent reality. Under mental monism, what needs to be explained here are the relationships that equate to change in QE without discourse to an QE-independent reality. If such a change in QE as that which occurs between "unconsciousness" can be explained within that overall framework, then there is no need to infer a QE-independent realm.
It is a strong point. This would imply that QEs are an essential component of what is called reality. I used to think exactly like that, but I have failed to find proofs of this. The only "evidence" is the "Advaita Awareness" I talked about before. Out of this, nothing points to this as being real.
I agree with you, how to explain changuing QEs without an "external" cause? A possible "argument" against this is that, while you are in a non duality consciousness, nothing "needs" to be "explained". But then again, that doesnt explain anything!
Similarly, death can't be the end of QE per se. It can be the end of "me" or "you" in that both are terms refering to specific relationships between QE, which can change.
Except that we would still need to find QEs that are not related to a brain-senses system.
I don't really understand what noumenal means. Is it another way of refering to "objective" or experience-independent reality? If not, then what is the difference between noumenal and phenomenal? If so, then I don't understand how you can on the one hand say there is no reality external to experience, but on the other say there is noumenal reality?
Noumenal would mean "the real objectivity". The so called "objective reality" is a fantasy. Most believe that this reality is composed by matter, space, planets, rocks, forces... without noticing that those are concepts that depend on meanings that depend on senses that depend on noumena. You can call this noumenal reality as what is there when no one sees.
But still, what I dont like about the terminology, is that it IMPLIES a duality between "the world" and "the perceiver", which I believe its just an interpretation, so, feel free to tell me more about the subject. How would you explain perceptual regularities?
I see. Ok, I'll return to your original question:
" If "things" are qualities would you say that there should be experiences before "things"?"
No, because I don't see any reason to think they exist
Let me rephrase, I believe my question is confusing. QEs stand for Qualitative Experiences. What Im asking is if you believe that this QEs are the basic components of reality, instead of "classic" components like atoms, quarks, forces and etc.