The objective morality argument for God really gets to me sometimes. It's not that it is a good argument and it is fairly easily answered, but the answers always seem dissatisfying to me.
I am sure everyone knows the argument, but I will state it briefly.
(1) Objective morality can only exist if God exists.
(2) Objective morals do exist.
(3) therefore God exists.
Premise (1) is easily defeated with the Euthyphro Dilemma, but this defeater does not entail that objective morals exist. It only entails that if they do, they can't be grounded in God.
The easiest defeater is to deny (2), but this is where I get tripped up. If moral values are subjective, then I have to admit that I can't really condemn another persons actions. But this seems wrong. From a purely emotional standpoint, I, of course, want to be able to say that torturing an innocent child is wrong, not just that I think it is wrong, but that it really is wrong. If morals are subjective and someone could say that it is morally right to torture an innocent child, it just seems like the words "right" and "wrong" have no meaning in a moral context.
Does anyone else feel this way?
Does anyone have a better response to the argument or a different understanding of the consequences of the responses I already gave?
Am I obsessing over something that really doesn't matter and should just get over it (since the moral structure of our societies will remain the same regardless of the objective/subjective question)?
Something else?
Some of this has already been covered, but here is my perspective on this (for what it's worth and that isn't much).
When using the word "objective", especially in discussions on morality, I've found that we tend to mean one of three things: (1) mind-independent, (2) inter-subjective, or (3) universal.
The problem in these sorts of discussions is that the differing senses of "objective" are often mixed and matched to end with an equivocation error. Add to this the fact that "objective" is contrasted with "subjective" and we also use the word "subjective" to mean more than one thing so that we end up with a bloody mess.
Morality being objective in the OP sense, meaning human mind-independent, depends on another mind, hence the appeal to God. That does not make morality actually mind-independent because it is dependent on God's mind (the rules have to come from somewhere and rules depend on minds), but it meets the criteria for objective for the sake of argument. There is no other way to arrive at objective morality using the connotation of morality as mind-independent unless you want to posit a thinking universe that contains moral principles. Some people choose to do so, but most think them completely daft.
Morality as inter-subjective is what most people mean when discussing "objective" morality. This connotation of the word provides a means for us to arrive at near (or possibly even complete) universality. We are built with moral sentiments, provided us by evolution. Those moral sentiments -- for instance the internal sense that it is wrong to kill an innocent -- are not morality itself but one of its origins. Morality, as we commonly speak of it, also depends on interaction with others. It is a negotiated settlement between individuals based in moral sentiments. Appeal to moral sentiments themselves ends in the naturalistic fallacy.
One of the issues that is often clouded over, unfortunately, in discussions of the evolutionary basis of morality is that moral sentiments are often equated with morality itself. While these (ultimately subjective) feelings serve as important moral guides, without human interaction we would never arrive at the types of morality that we seem to have. And if we appealed only to moral sentiments, then there would be no answer to the Charlie Mansons of the world. But since morality is a combination of moral sentiment and inter-subjective agreement, we are able to universalize the overwhelming majority of opinion on any particular subject. The fact that 99% of humans feel that killing humans is wrong and that virtually everyone agrees that killing innocent humans is wrong makes killing innocent humans wrong. There are a few who do not feel that killing an innocent is wrong, but they are still taught that it is and are expected to act on that teaching.
This is obviously not "objective" according to the first meaning of the word, but it is the best we seem capable of; and it does not lead to "without God everything is permissable".
Another way of stating this is to say that it makes as much sense to speak of a personal language as it does of a personal morality. Language only exists for interaction between people. The same is true of morality.
As to the final way that we use the word, some state that either deontology (duty-based morality, think Kant) or utilitarianism provides an objective morality. But, from what I can tell, this seems to mean that morality is universal not objective in the first sense, since these philosophies are supposed to be universalizable. Neither is human mind-independent; both are inter-subjective. The former relies primarily on reason, the latter on a combination of reason and emotion. And from what we now know of neuroscience, reason as we think of it is not possible without emotion, so both are emotion/feeling based.
I'm not sure that helps in any way, but it is the contour of the minfield that I have often encountered in these debates.