Dancing David
Penultimate Amazing
You don't seem to understand the issue at all. There is no such thing as a "CRA loan". The CRA simply requires that a mortgage lender must issue loans across all income levels in the community in which they're located - regardless of the pool of credit-worthy customers. You can't point to loans the bank made and say "that one was a CRA loan, this one was not". What you can do is look at foreclosure rates in areas in which the CRA required loans to be made - and these areas have far higher foreclosure rates than areas not targeted by the CRA.
What we do know is that the mortgage securities collapse is caused by loans that have defaulted and are in foreclosure, and that the foreclosure rates in areas targeted by the CRA are far higher than in other areas.
Um, one simple questions which I will give you two days to answer;
1 What percentage of sub-prime loans were generated by non-depository institutions not covered by the CRA?
2 (Bonus question) What percentage of sub-prime borrowers could have qualified for a prime loan?
Your insistence that the CRA is the responsible factor in sub-prime loans seems rather uninformed and based upon a dogma.