Stimpson J. Cat
Graduate Poster
- Joined
- Sep 20, 2001
- Messages
- 1,949
Win,
Then I suggest you do some reading in the fields of Neuroscience and modern Psychology.
I guess that depends on how you define consciousness. I define it to be my thoughts, perceptions, awareness, feelings, memory, and intuition. The fact that my brain is aware of these things trivially demonstrates that they are causally efficacious.
You can define it to be something else, ala epiphenomenalism, but if you do so, I have no idea what it is, or why you think it is real.
Ian,
Only if I were claiming that it ontologically exists. I am not. I don't even know what that means.
The scientific community. Scientists. You know, the people who have defined what science is. You can define it to mean something else if you want, but don't expect anybody else to care.
Only you.
If it is not causally closed, then there is no way to determine which observed effects are due to physical causes, and which are due to non-physical causes. This makes it impossible to actually determine what the physical laws are, rendering the scientific method completely impotent.
If object A is physical, and object B is non-physical, and object B has an effect on object A, then the behavior of object A cannot be described in terms of physical laws. Furthermore, there is no way to determine what the physical rules for anything are, because you can never determine whether a given observation was due to physical laws, or some sort of non-physical influence.
It's the old "how do you know Satan didn't put the fossils there?" problem. Since science can only address the physical, it cannot be used to determine which observed phenomena are strictly physical, and which are due to non-physical influences.
This leaves you two options
1) Arbitrarily decide, based on your religious/metaphysical beliefs, which phenomena are subject to physical laws, and which are not.
2) Discard science entirely.
Option number one renders the scientific method logically incoherent, because there is no logical way to determine when it does and does not apply. It becomes just another aspect of your irrational beliefs.
You can define it that way, but that is not how science defines it, and that is what is important if you are making arguments about the limitations and validity of science.
If the change was initiated by a non-physical thing, then that event cannot be explained in terms of physical laws. This means that it is impossible to determine whether any observed event was initiated by something non-physical, which makes determination of the physical laws impossible.
The fact that my brain makes decisions based on my mental states. I know, you don't think my brain makes decisions based on mental states, but rather based on the neural correlates. But even then your brain is indirectly being effected by the mental state. The fact that your brain knows you possess mental states clearly demonstrates this.
The very fact that we are physically discussing consciousness clearly demonstrates that it is causally efficacious.
The scenario of non-physical consciousness is only possible if the physical world is not causally closed. In the real World, consciousness is clearly causally efficacious. If it wasn't, our physical brains would have no idea that it even exists, and would not be here arguing about it.
Intuitive arguments like this have no place in a logical argument. Your claim that mental processes "appear to be utterly different from each other" is not only a highly subjective judgement call, but also one which many people would disagree with (myself included).
Do you even know anything about this scientific theory, other than that it contradicts your beliefs? I don't think you have the slightest idea what you are talking about.
The evidence is published in publicly available journals and books. Go read about the subject if you don't believe me.
The fact that it is a falsifiable theory which has been extensively tested. That is the only kind of evidence that there is for anything.
Dr. Stupid
What the current scientific theories state is that consciousness is a physical process in the brain,
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I noticed this, via Ian, and I'd be interested to know exactly what the content of the theory is.
Then I suggest you do some reading in the fields of Neuroscience and modern Psychology.
Which is a trivially false statement.
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No it isn't. It isn't even false.
I guess that depends on how you define consciousness. I define it to be my thoughts, perceptions, awareness, feelings, memory, and intuition. The fact that my brain is aware of these things trivially demonstrates that they are causally efficacious.
You can define it to be something else, ala epiphenomenalism, but if you do so, I have no idea what it is, or why you think it is real.
Ian,
It is not ontological speculation, because I am not attributing any characteristics to this external reality that cannot be empirically verified. It is an epistemological position, not an ontological assumption.
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Saying it exists is the ontological presumption.
Only if I were claiming that it ontologically exists. I am not. I don't even know what that means.
And who gets to decide that it is an axiom?
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Whoever it is that is responsible for deciding what the word "science" means.
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Who has stated that the hypothesis that the world is physically closed is an axiom of science?
The scientific community. Scientists. You know, the people who have defined what science is. You can define it to mean something else if you want, but don't expect anybody else to care.
Did anyone argue against him that it ought not to be?
Only you.
Why does it need to be an axiom?
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Because without it the scientific method is not logically valid.
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Why not? Change in the world initiated by sentient beings could be explained in terms of intent and desires. I see no necessity in supposing the world must be physically closed.
If it is not causally closed, then there is no way to determine which observed effects are due to physical causes, and which are due to non-physical causes. This makes it impossible to actually determine what the physical laws are, rendering the scientific method completely impotent.
If you allow for influences which don't obey physical laws to influence things which do, you can no longer claim that those things do.
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Sorry you're confusing me here. Care to expand?
If object A is physical, and object B is non-physical, and object B has an effect on object A, then the behavior of object A cannot be described in terms of physical laws. Furthermore, there is no way to determine what the physical rules for anything are, because you can never determine whether a given observation was due to physical laws, or some sort of non-physical influence.
It's the old "how do you know Satan didn't put the fossils there?" problem. Since science can only address the physical, it cannot be used to determine which observed phenomena are strictly physical, and which are due to non-physical influences.
This leaves you two options
1) Arbitrarily decide, based on your religious/metaphysical beliefs, which phenomena are subject to physical laws, and which are not.
2) Discard science entirely.
Option number one renders the scientific method logically incoherent, because there is no logical way to determine when it does and does not apply. It becomes just another aspect of your irrational beliefs.
Look at it this way. If the physical World is the set of all things which obey physical laws,
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But it isn't. The physical world is the set of all things which can be discerned from a third person perspective.
You can define it that way, but that is not how science defines it, and that is what is important if you are making arguments about the limitations and validity of science.
then it must be causally closed. If it is not causally closed, then that implies that there are physical things which can be affected by things which do not obey physical laws. This in turn implies that these physical things do not function according to physical laws,
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No it doesn't imply this at all. Change might be initiated by a non-physical thing, but thereafter unfold according to physical laws.
If the change was initiated by a non-physical thing, then that event cannot be explained in terms of physical laws. This means that it is impossible to determine whether any observed event was initiated by something non-physical, which makes determination of the physical laws impossible.
As a practical example, consider the mind. Clearly the mind has an effect on the brain.
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How did you work this out?
The fact that my brain makes decisions based on my mental states. I know, you don't think my brain makes decisions based on mental states, but rather based on the neural correlates. But even then your brain is indirectly being effected by the mental state. The fact that your brain knows you possess mental states clearly demonstrates this.
Not at all. It just means that our non-physical consciousness is not causally efficaceous.
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Which is a trivially false statement.
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What you say here is quite patently false. If the world is causally closed then our behaviour is fully explicable in terms of physical processes.
The very fact that we are physically discussing consciousness clearly demonstrates that it is causally efficacious.
You can only say that it is trivial false if it is self-evidently true that experiential consciousness is one and the very same thing, or is a function of such processes. However we were considering the scenario of non-physical consciousness
The scenario of non-physical consciousness is only possible if the physical world is not causally closed. In the real World, consciousness is clearly causally efficacious. If it wasn't, our physical brains would have no idea that it even exists, and would not be here arguing about it.
If you think this you clearly don't understand what science means. Quite bad considering you claim to be a scientist. FYI it is a metaphysical theory, and an impressively stupid one at that.
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What is metaphysical about it?
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To say that A and B are one and the very same thing, when they appaer to be utterly different from each other, and we merely have a correlation between them, is at the very minimum, to take a gigantic leap of faith to say nothing of its highly questionable intelligibility.
Intuitive arguments like this have no place in a logical argument. Your claim that mental processes "appear to be utterly different from each other" is not only a highly subjective judgement call, but also one which many people would disagree with (myself included).
It is a falsifiable hypothesis, and the most parsimonious falsifiable hypothesis that is consistent with the available data.
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You can't falsify it. There is absolutely no way one could falsify such a crazy hypothesis.
Do you even know anything about this scientific theory, other than that it contradicts your beliefs? I don't think you have the slightest idea what you are talking about.
and one for which there is considerable supporting evidence.
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There is no evidence whatsoever. How many times do you need to be told this???
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You can tell me this as many times as you like. Until you actually provide some sort of reasonable argument to back up this claim, you are just blowing hot air.
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No, you are required to produce the evidence.
The evidence is published in publicly available journals and books. Go read about the subject if you don't believe me.
Your "that isn't consciousness, that is just the neural correlate" argument holds no water, because at the very least, it begs the question.
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So what evidence do you have that consciousness just simply is its neural correlates. Come on, you've claimed you've got plenty. I await with baited breath
The fact that it is a falsifiable theory which has been extensively tested. That is the only kind of evidence that there is for anything.
Dr. Stupid