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Going in circles

69dodge said:
It can't have more than one axis of rotation at a time. But at different times it may have different axes of rotation.No, because the sphere might start rotating about a totally different axis before the point has a chance to describe a complete circle.

With the center of the sphere fixed, a given point on the surface may describe a path that is entirely arbitrary except that it must remain on the surface.

Well, ....yes, but that wasn't what BSM asked. He explicitly stated that the rotations had to be applied simultaneously at the outset. Obviously if we applied incremental forces we would then at that moment shift the rotation axis (as I mentioned myself, above) and that would in that instant, complicate the trajectory. But for a stable system not subject to incremental forces it wouldn't apply.

Assuming we don't disturb the system beyond its initial state (with however many rotations that requires) I can't see how one can obtain anything other than a circular trajectory (except for the poles of course), and in any event I can't see how or why it should be arbitrary.
 
69dodge said:
Finite angular displacements do not, in general, commute, but infinitesimal angular displacements do, and therefore so do angular velocities, which are the ratio of an infinitesimal angular displacement divided by an infinitesimal period of time.
Yes, you're right, infinitesimal rotations do commute, I forgot that. Basically an infinitesimal rotation is the matrix above expanded to first order, and when you the matrices together you'd drop any second order terms, and that eliminates the noncommutativity.

Not all math problems have a solution. For example, what's lim<sub>θ -> &inf;</sub> sin θ? Doesn't exist. Doesn't blow up, either, just never settles down to a proper limit. Likewise, the definite integral from zero to infinity of cos θ doesn't converge.

I'm still confused about what set of axes BSM wants to rotate around. In your example of two axes, you say they're orthogonal. But there's only three possible orthogonal axes - that shouldn't be too hard to solve.

But if you really mean all possible angles, I think that's simply going to diverge. Imagine marking a very small patch on the sphere and only adding up the rotations whose axis passes through the patch. You can approximate all such rotations by a single axis through it's center. So how ever many axes fall in that patch you just multiply the frequency of rotation by that number to find out the total effect of rotations of that set of axes. If you really mean all possible directions, though, there's an infinite number - the sphere will rotate infinitely many times, even in a very short time. You've already said it's no fair cancelling the rotations by reversing the rotation on the other side of the sphere, so I don't see an obvious way out of this problem.

But I expect I've simply misunderstood...
 
Pragmatist, I figured BSM's question was purely about kinematics, not dynamics. I certainly agree that changing the angular momentum of an object requires the application of torque.

A gimballed sphere moving as depicted in wittgenst3in's pictures does not have constant angular momentum, but if the base of the gimbal system is attached to the ground, the earth will provide the required torque.
 
Zombified said:
If you really mean all possible directions, though, there's an infinite number - the sphere will rotate infinitely many times, even in a very short time. You've already said it's no fair cancelling the rotations by reversing the rotation on the other side of the sphere, so I don't see an obvious way out of this problem.

Gut reaction time again. Since every one of my posited axes has a component of its angular momentum that contributes to a clockwise rotation about the N pole the net angular momentum about the N pole must be infinite as soon as the rotation starts.

Is that right?

Does that mean my question is unanswerable, or can it only be resolved by those clever mathematical techniques that play with infinities in ways the mortal mind of the non-mathmo regards as cheating?
 
That's what I suspect, unless there is some cancellation going on.

But I can't even seem to get the sine of an angle right today, so who knows?
 
Originally posted by Zombified
If you really mean all possible directions, though, there's an infinite number - the sphere will rotate infinitely many times, even in a very short time. You've already said it's no fair cancelling the rotations by reversing the rotation on the other side of the sphere, so I don't see an obvious way out of this problem.
We could replace "angular speed about a single axis" with something like "angular speed density per solid angle," which we then integrate over the hemisphere. Kind of like "probability" for a discrete distribution turns into "probability density" for a continuous distribution.
 
You could do that, and now that you mention it, it brings up an interesting problem about BSM's statement that we shouldn't just cancel the rotation on the opposite side of the sphere.

You can define a rotation with a vector - it point along the axis, it's magnitude is the rate of rotation, and the rotation is right-handed around the vector (e.g., if your thumb points in the direction of the vector the fingers of your right hand curl in the direction of the rotation...)

Consider the rotation vector for two opposite points. Imagine one points out of the sphere, normal to the surface. If the other one also points out of the sphere, the two rotations will be pointing in the opposite direction, and will therefore cancel out, which BSM says he doesn't want.

Now define a function which is the dot product of the rotation vector with a unit vector normal to the surface (or the surface's curvature vector, same result). This function will be positive for the first point and negative for the opposite point. If the function is continuous, therefore, the value must be zero somewhere on the sphere - but that can't be, because all the rotations have the same magnitude. Therefore, the function has to be discontinuous... there is some edge on the sphere where the sense of the rotation flips. Not only that, but we have to be careful about the edge itself, if opposite points don't cancel; neither half of the sphere gets to be compact (that is, includes all of the points in its boundary).

I'm not sure where that gets us, but it's sort of interesting. It's probably time for more 3D pictures. :)
 
I suspect much of the problem here is via a matter of definition.

The idea people seem to have is that by having a force pushing a point on the object we get one rotation, so by having two forces pushing the object we get two rotations.

So instead of using the word rotate, which IMHO can only be used after the forces are summed and the resultant found, lets use the analogy of having a force applied by a number of jet engines on the surface of the earth. (Assume for the moment that the center of the earth is in some sort of immovable bearing so forces only cause rotations, not translations in this case). Also assume that the earth is not currently rotating.

So say we have a massive jet engine on the lawn at Greenwich, pointing east. We fire it up and it sets the earth rotating clockwise as viewed from the north pole. Check. We stop the earth and start again.

Now we move to the second engine we have in the same place, which is pointing north. We activate both engines at the same time, and the earth starts rotating about a diagonal this time. This is what most people have been calling a second rotation, as it involves two sources contributing to the rotation. I don't think this is true, and here's why.

Say I reposition the engines so one is facing east and one is facing west. I power them up at the same time, and the resultant force is zero. This is a state of no rotation, it's not two rotations cancelling each other out, it's just the forces summing to zero.

So I think it all comes down to definitions.

Having said that it would seem that adding infinite number of jet engines in random directions would sum to zero. However if each jet engine was placed in such a way as to give a positive spin when viewed from the north pole (i.e. being located with thrust pointing at a compas bearing between 0 and 180 deg), then the rotation would probably be as infinite as you can get in Einsteins world.
 
wittgenst3in said:
I suspect much of the problem here is via a matter of definition.

The idea people seem to have is that by having a force pushing a point on the object we get one rotation, so by having two forces pushing the object we get two rotations.

So instead of using the word rotate, which IMHO can only be used after the forces are summed and the resultant found, lets use the analogy of having a force applied by a number of jet engines on the surface of the earth. (Assume for the moment that the center of the earth is in some sort of immovable bearing so forces only cause rotations, not translations in this case). Also assume that the earth is not currently rotating.

So say we have a massive jet engine on the lawn at Greenwich, pointing east. We fire it up and it sets the earth rotating clockwise as viewed from the north pole. Check. We stop the earth and start again.

Now we move to the second engine we have in the same place, which is pointing north. We activate both engines at the same time, and the earth starts rotating about a diagonal this time. This is what most people have been calling a second rotation, as it involves two sources contributing to the rotation. I don't think this is true, and here's why.

Say I reposition the engines so one is facing east and one is facing west. I power them up at the same time, and the resultant force is zero. This is a state of no rotation, it's not two rotations cancelling each other out, it's just the forces summing to zero.

So I think it all comes down to definitions.

Having said that it would seem that adding infinite number of jet engines in random directions would sum to zero. However if each jet engine was placed in such a way as to give a positive spin when viewed from the north pole (i.e. being located with thrust pointing at a compas bearing between 0 and 180 deg), then the rotation would probably be as infinite as you can get in Einsteins world.

Well I agree with all the above, this is equivalent to what I was trying to convey in my last post. The question remains though how we answer BSM's question.

I've been looking at your MATLAB program that you posted, and although I don't know MATLAB code I think I understand how it works. But I see a problem. It's related to the coordinate system as I thought.

If we have a fixed observer, then the absolute direction (the world coordinate system as opposed to the local coordinate system) has to be invariant with respect to that observer (otherwise the observer isn't fixed!). Taking the case of two rotations about orthogonal axes (which is what you were plotting) I think we need to fix the axes at the outset and ALWAYS rotate relative to those same LOCAL directions (in the local coordinate system). However, as you noted before, every time we perform a rotation, we move the axes and effectively change the relation between the two coordinate systems (i.e. the relation of observer to the coordinates of rotation). Therefore, in order to be consistent, we need to keep altering the transform to account for the changes of coordinate system (local coordinate system relative to world coordinate system) with each individual rotation. For example. let's define a world coordinate system of X,Y, Z (orthogonal) with X and Y in the conventional sense (i.e. Y points to the top of the page, X points to the right) and Z points toward us out of the page or screen, and with the sense of rotations anticlockwise looking from the origin out along any given axis. Now let's choose the two axes which we will rotate about. I choose Y and X (in that order). So we start with both local and world coordinate systems coincident.

Now, since our OBSERVER is fixed, then the absolute definitions of X, Y and Z should also remain fixed at all times. So let us start (for the sake of easy example) with a 90 degree rotation about Y. This will cause the X axis to become mapped on to the Z axis and the Z axis will be mapped to the -X axis. Hold up the thumb, forefinger and middle finger of the left hand at right angles to each other. Start with the thumb pointed toward you, so the thumb is Z, the forefinger is Y (pointing up) and the middle finger is X (pointing right). In order to ensure consistency we must always perform two rotations, firstly about the forefinger and then about the middle finger. As long as we ensure we always do this, then the sense of rotation should be continuous.

Now twist the hand about, bringing the middle finger toward you, so that the thumb is now pointing left and the middle finger ends up pointing at you. The middle finger was the ORIGINAL X axis. And the forefinger was (and still is) the ORIGINAL Y axis. The next rotation has to be performed around the middle finger, anticlockwise.

However. There is a problem. The coordinate transform matrices are developed relative to an observer whose view is invariant with respect to the original directions. So when we now want to perform a rotation about the (original) X axis - the middle finger, we have to take into account that our X axis is now actually the Z axis as the result of the last rotation. So the second transform we need to apply is the Z transformation, NOT the X transformation.

So we then apply the Z transformation which rotates about the middle finger. The middle finger remains as Z of course, but the thumb now points in the Y direction, and the forefinger now points in the X direction.

That is step 1. We then proceed with the next iteration. This time we need to rotate about the forefinger (as before), but the forefinger is now X, so we need to apply an X transformation. This maps the middle finger on to Y .... and so on.

So in the course of only two iterations, the sequence of transformations required for proper rotation invariant with respect to the LOCAL coordinate system is Y,Z,X,Y. Here is what I believe is the problem with your code. You are repeatedly performing only two transformations, X and Y, (no Z transformation at all) so your sequence for the same steps would be X,Y,X,Y. Instead of performing a continuous rotation along the same axes, you are incrementally skipping from axis to axis, which is what causes the fancy patterns in your charts (I'll admit they look nice though! :))

There is a further problem as well. The above only applies to 90 degree rotations - I chose it only for simplicity and because it's easy to see. If you are rotating by a small angle rather than 90 degrees, then the transformed axes do not map on to existing axes. So the actual transformations are wrong, because you would need to alter them to hybrid transformations for arbitrarily displaced axes. In other words, you would need to work out a projected transformation relative to the original axes. I haven't tried to work out if there is a simple solution - I have a nasty feeling there is some heavy duty trig involved in doing so!

Anyway, I believe that accounts for the discrepancy between your plots and what I visualise, your coordinate system is rotating AND oscillating relative to the fixed observer which is equivalent to having a rotating and oscillating observer observing an invariant coordinate system. If you correct the program for the motion of the observer I believe you will end up with simple circles - although, as I said above, I suspect that correction would be notoriously difficult.

Sorry if that's a bit difficult to follow, it was the easiest way I could think of describing it! I apologise for any mistakes in the above in advance, I'm a bit tired right now, but hope the gist of what I'm trying to say is clear.
 
I found some gorgeous gyroscope pictures, in case anyone's interested.

Pragmatist, I understand your answer, I think---you want to represent the two rotations by vectors and simply add the vectors---but I don't know what question you're answering. Could you try to explain what you think the question is? Take a look again at my first post in this thread.

In any case, regardless of what BSM originally meant to ask, I would like to ask the following question about the gyroscope in my link:<blockquote>What path in space is traced out by a point on the outer edge of the gyroscope's rotor, if the rotor rotates within the inner ring while simultaneously, and at the same angular speed, the inner ring rotates within the outer ring? (The outer ring as well as the base are held motionless.)</blockquote>I believe that the answer to this question is given by the figure-8 in wittgenst3in's pictures. Do you disagree?
 
Originally posted by wittgenst3in
(Assume for the moment that the center of the earth is in some sort of immovable bearing so forces only cause rotations, not translations in this case). Also assume that the earth is not currently rotating.

So say we have a massive jet engine on the lawn at Greenwich, pointing east. We fire it up and it sets the earth rotating clockwise as viewed from the north pole.
Greenwich is not on the equator. So the earth will not begin to rotate about the usual north-south axis. It will begin to rotate about an axis that makes Greenwich lie on the new "equator."
 
69dodge said:
Greenwich is not on the equator. So the earth will not begin to rotate about the usual north-south axis. It will begin to rotate about an axis that makes Greenwich lie on the new "equator."

But taking tha analogy further, it does seem like a sensible idea to sum all the forces that produce my "rotations" and see what is the resultant. But, I would not have one engine placed at Greenwich, what I would have is an axis exiting the globe at Greenwich with rotation induced about that axis by a ring of infinitessimal jet engines aligned tangentially along the circumference of a ring 90-degrees away from Greenwich.

So...my infinite axes turn into infinite rings of jet engines.

I can see that infinite axes are causing a problem with creating infinite velocities, and maybe that is an intractable problem, but, even so, does the resultant of a large, but finite, number of these ring forces just produce a single rotation or some more complicated oscillatory pattern?

I must admit to feeling some guilt at shining this magnifying glass onto the anthill to see the ants run around, but it's only a little guilt and I do remain very grateful to the ants :)
 
I need to ask a basic question that reveals my mathematical ignorance (or amnesia). If my question should be attacked from the point of view of forces creating the motion rather than rotations, what is the basic descriptor of the force required to make a sphere or disc spin?

Am I right in saying that to answer my question about many or infinite axes that we should caculate the resultant of all the individual forces about all the individual axes and see what that resultant does to the motion?
 
69dodge said:
I found some gorgeous gyroscope pictures, in case anyone's interested.

Pragmatist, I understand your answer, I think---you want to represent the two rotations by vectors and simply add the vectors---but I don't know what question you're answering. Could you try to explain what you think the question is? Take a look again at my first post in this thread.

In any case, regardless of what BSM originally meant to ask, I would like to ask the following question about the gyroscope in my link:<blockquote>What path in space is traced out by a point on the outer edge of the gyroscope's rotor, if the rotor rotates within the inner ring while simultaneously, and at the same angular speed, the inner ring rotates within the outer ring? (The outer ring as well as the base are held motionless.)</blockquote>I believe that the answer to this question is given by the figure-8 in wittgenst3in's pictures. Do you disagree?

O.K. thanks, things are becoming clearer. The question I'm answering is BSM's original question in the opening post of this thread. I am assuming he is talking about a rigid sphere, free to rotate about any axis - I can't see that I have misinterpreted that in any way as stated, of course only BSM can tell us if that is what he meant! :)

Now, the question of rotating gimbals is actually a separate thing, and it is NOT the same problem. I haven't attempted to answer that one. One of the ways in which it is different from the rigid sphere is because the gimbals have fewer degrees of freedom - for example a gimbal ring cannot rotate about an axis through its (in plane) center.

I don't know the answer to the gimbal problem because I haven't considered it, so wittgenst3in's pictures may well be correct for that case, I don't honestly know.

Anyway, thanks for pointing that out, we are probably all answering different questions, which would explain the confusion. Was wittgenst3in trying to model a gimbal system or a rigid sphere? From the context I assumed he was trying to model the sphere with his original program because nobody had mentioned gimbal systems at that point.

Perhaps we need a poll in which everyone can declare their alliegances, who's for spheres and who's for gimbals? :D
 
Badly Shaved Monkey said:
But taking tha analogy further, it does seem like a sensible idea to sum all the forces that produce my "rotations" and see what is the resultant. But, I would not have one engine placed at Greenwich, what I would have is an axis exiting the globe at Greenwich with rotation induced about that axis by a ring of infinitessimal jet engines aligned tangentially along the circumference of a ring 90-degrees away from Greenwich.

So...my infinite axes turn into infinite rings of jet engines.

I can see that infinite axes are causing a problem with creating infinite velocities, and maybe that is an intractable problem, but, even so, does the resultant of a large, but finite, number of these ring forces just produce a single rotation or some more complicated oscillatory pattern?

I must admit to feeling some guilt at shining this magnifying glass onto the anthill to see the ants run around, but it's only a little guilt and I do remain very grateful to the ants :)

It doesn't matter too much how you represent it. For example your infinite ring of engines at greenwich is equivalent to one big engine mounted at (at a rough estimate) just on the coast of Ecuador, or on a sea platform just westward of the coast of Sumatra (or any point on the great circle between the two). And I think you are getting confused with the infinities, remember its an infinity of infinitesimals so the result should be finite (as it would be in calculus for example).

Anyway, if you applied equal forces to all possible axes the resultant forces would of course cancel out and there would be no net rotation. If you only applied forces to all axes in one hemisphere, then I am not sure what the result would be, but it would again be equivalent to a single vector - off the top of my head, I suspect it would be equivalent to a single force about the pole of that hemisphere.

All of this engine talk reminds me of Ringworld! Now if we can just work out how to convert a Bussard Ramjet to oxygen/nitrogen fusion and find a way for atmospheric vortices to feed it.... :D
 
Pragmatist said:
O.K. thanks, things are becoming clearer. The question I'm answering is BSM's original question in the opening post of this thread. I am assuming he is talking about a rigid sphere, free to rotate about any axis - I can't see that I have misinterpreted that in any way as stated, of course only BSM can tell us if that is what he meant! :)

" I am assuming he is talking about a rigid sphere"

Yes.

The gimbal thing entered as part of the background to why I asked the sphere question, but it's this tumbling/spinning/frozen sphere that is bugging me because I feel I should be able to simply intuit an answer but cannot yet nor do I have the maths to solve it analytically.
 
Pragmatist said:

Anyway, if you applied equal forces to all possible axes the resultant forces would of course cancel out and there would be no net rotation. If you only applied forces to all axes in one hemisphere, then I am not sure what the result would be, but it would again be equivalent to a single vector - off the top of my head, I suspect it would be equivalent to a single force about the pole of that hemisphere.

O...K....

Imagine an axis sticking out of (strictly speaking a fraction above) the equator at 0 longitude and another sticking out of 180 longitude. A clockwise force about the one (almost completely) cancels the clockwise force about the other. This is the same for any pair of axes. This true for every pair of axes with their N ends emerging just above the equator.

For a pair of axes sticking out at latitude 45 and 0 and 180 longitdue, am I right in thinking that the forces about them can be regarded as comprising a smaller force acting about an equatorial force and one acting about the N pole

and so one until we are considering the axis exactly through the N pole.
The forces acting about every axis can be regarded as a component about an equatorial axis and one about teh N pole. The N pole forces add, but the equatorial forces all cancel by the component diametrically oppposite.

So the sphere spins about the N pole, finitely fast if there are finite axes and infinitely if there are infinite axes.

That sounds right! Is it?

[tongueincheek]So, a stationary sphere could have no force acting on it or clockwise (or anti-clockwise, but it must be the same for each axis) forces acting on each one of infinite axes through it. That is like Xeno's paradox again.[/tongueincheek] :)
 
Originally posted by Badly Shaved Monkey
If my question should be attacked from the point of view of forces creating the motion rather than rotations, what is the basic descriptor of the force required to make a sphere or disc spin?
It's not a matter of "should," really; it all depends on what question you want to ask. You could ask about jet engines attached to a sphere or you could ask about a sphere supported on nested gimbals. They're not the same question.
Am I right in saying that to answer my question about many or infinite axes that we should calculate the resultant of all the individual forces about all the individual axes and see what that resultant does to the motion?
Yes, if you're asking about jets.

The rotational analog of "force" is "torque." Like force, torque is a vector quantity, which means, among other things, that you can resolve it into components, and that a bunch of torques applied simultaneously to an object have the same effect as the single torque that is their sum.
 

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