I don't think you would like it if your neighbor (who is physically very strong, the bodybuilder) could freely decide whether your living room actually belongs to you, or to him.
All across the USA, people break into homes that are not owned by them, and squat.
Police get called by the owners, they arrive, and more often than not, tell the owner to go to court for an eviction decree. THEN, after a judge issues an order, the authorities (generally, Sheriff's Departments) are permitted to intervene.
If you decide to perform a thing called a "Self-Eviction" then YOU will be arrested or face charges.
Is Belgium different? Can I walk into your vacant building and take it over (squat) and you are allowed to force me out with whatever means you have at your disposal?
What you are failing to realize here, MichelH, is Jewish properties and Jewish RIGHTS to them, have been usurped by Arabs over hundreds of years.
For example, in Sheikh Jarrah (Shimon Ha'Tzadik in Jerusalem).
For example, the JEWISH Temple Mount.
For example, in Hebron (Jews were forced OUT in 1920's and have now returned to Jewish-owned and deeded homes there, using the Courts to reclaim their properties after the Arabs have stopped paying rental to the legal owners and now just claim it as theirs).
Don't you understand the need for an impartial and objective judge or referee?
Did you mean the UN? Are you claiming the UN is 'impartial' ? (with a solid Arab-led majority that could pass any anti-Israel Resolution they wish to, and have done so frequently) ----- in fact, it's quite well-known there is a firm and solid attitude at the UN to focus on Israel, to the exclusion of other Nations.
Israel is the only country listed on the Human Rights Council’s permanent agenda (Item 7).
If Israel is a peace-loving state, it should always try to comply with the Security Council decisions or opinions (the Security Council is the highest, or one of the highest international institutions devoted to peace and security).
Why do you use the word "if" ???
Let me ask you another question (which you'll also ignore, probably) ---
Have you ever read the 1949 Rhodes Armistice Agreements?
https://peacemaker.un.org/sites/pea...ingdom-Israel General Armistice Agreement.pdf
Are you aware that in those documents, the following phrase appears (regarding the demarcations that you are trying to foist upon Israel as "Palestinian Lands")
Article II
"...no provision of this Agreement shall in any way prejudice
the rights, claims and positions of either Party hereto in the ultimate peaceful
settlement of the Palestine question, the provisions of this Agreement being dictated
exclusively by military considerations"
What does that actually mean to you? That one party (Israel) has to be FORCED to relinquish any of those captured areas? Is that your opinion? I read it as saying the opposite.