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Executive Order vs Decree

DC

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DC
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Mar 20, 2008
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What is the difference between an Executive Order from the US president, and a Decree from the Venezuelan President?
 
I think your looking for rule by decree to find the difference, and its based on how much power the rest of the governement gives him within the boundaries of the constitution. Based on how the leader uses the power or finds a way to extend the time is what crosses the lines of democracy.
 
If you're looking for an angle to say "look, Chavez is using powers of decree just like Bush or Obama", then you should be prepared to give examples of each and why they are the same.
 
Tailgater said:
I think your looking for rule by decree to find the difference, and its based on how much power the rest of the governement gives him within the boundaries of the constitution. Based on how the leader uses the power or finds a way to extend the time is what crosses the lines of democracy.
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So when someone is using a decree but folowing his constitution and stays inside the rules given by the legislature. it is not ruling by decree.?
 
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Tailgater said:
If you're looking for an angle to say "look, Chavez is using powers of decree just like Bush or Obama", then you should be prepared to give examples of each and why they are the same.
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no, its others that make a difference, so they must give examples why they think it is diffrent. and there are many differences.
 
The US President has Executive Orders since 1789 and it is not time limted.
In Venezuela the President must request that power first from the National Assembly, and they decide and give a time limit to those powers.
 
Dictator Cheney said:
So when someone is using a decree but folowing his constitution and satays inside the rules given by the legislature. it is not ruling by decree.?
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Chavez was granted powers to "rule by decree" by the National Assembly in 2007, which is pretty much totally controlled by Chavez. If the constitution conflicts with what he wants to do, he sends it to the National Assembly which passes anything he wants. If something calls for a referendum, there is a vote. He just has to keep trying till he gets his way. In the meantime, he can just keep tightening control of the media, convincing his people the West is a threat, and squeezing out the opposition using the "put the thugs who hate democracy in prison routine" while real criminals run the streets and keep people in fear and "bingo", it will pass eventually. Usually, in the US, a decree is used for one specific emergency, and yes it can be abused as well, but there is less of a pass to do what you please in the US even though Bush tried really hard.
 
Dictator Cheney said:
The US President has Executive Orders since 1789 and it is not time limted.
In Venezuela the President must request that power first from the National Assembly, and they decide and give a time limit to those powers.
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Executive Orders is not the same as rule by decree.
 
Tailgater said:
Chavez was granted powers to "rule by decree" by the National Assembly in 2007, which is pretty much totally controlled by Chavez. If the constitution conflicts with what he wants to do, he sends it to the National Assembly which passes anything he wants. If something calls for a referendum, there is a vote. He just has to keep trying till he gets his way. In the meantime, he can just keep tightening control of the media, convincing his people the West is a threat, and squeezing out the opposition using the "put the thugs who hate democracy in prison routine" while real criminals run the streets and keep people in fear and "bingo", it will pass eventually. Usually, in the US, a decree is used for one specific emergency, and yes it can be abused as well, but there is less of a pass to do what you please in the US even though Bush tried really hard.
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you can backup those claims?
 
Dictator Cheney said:
no, its others that make a difference, so they must give examples why they think it is diffrent. and there are many differences.
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You're asking a question that most of us can assume you think you already know the answer too, and that would be that there is no difference.

So, I was asking you to explain your answer to your rhetorical question. Why do you think there is no difference?
 
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I'm really enjoying this thread, but I'm now running late for a job.:o

Always fun DC. Hopefully, I can get back to sparring tonight.

Google "executive orders", "decrees", and "rule by decree", or even "Chavez rule by decree" on the powers he was given to bypass Congress.

I had started, but just looked at the clock.

Later.
 
Tailgater said:
You're asking a question that most of us can assume you think you already know the answer too, and that would be that there is no difference.

So, I was asking you to explain your answer to your rhetorical question. Why do you think there is no difference?
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as i wrote in the post you quoted, i see differences.
i gave one example.
another one is, in the Venezuelan Constitution the "Decree" is clearly defined and limited. It cannot overrule the constitutional laws.
for example.
 
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Tailgater said:
I'm really enjoying this thread, but I'm now running late for a job.:o

Always fun DC. Hopefully, I can get back to sparring tonight.

Google "executive orders", "decrees", and "rule by decree", or even "Chavez rule by decree" on the powers he was given to bypass Congress.

I had started, but just looked at the clock.

Later.
Click to expand...

kk see you later :)

i did of course first google those things :) in 2 languages.
 
Dictator Cheney said:
What is the difference between an Executive Order from the US president, and a Decree from the Venezuelan President?
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Executive Orders from the U.S. President are directives to (and only to) the U.S. Government. (Much like the executive orders of any organization apply only to employees and functionaries of that organization. Which is why the CEO of Coca-Cola can order that the company lower its prices or change the recipe, but cannot not issue an Executive Order for everyone to switch from Pepsi to Coke or for Pepsi to shut down.)

That's not the only constraint on U.S. Presidential Executive Orders, but it's one of the more important ones. The President can request that I send money to his party or vote for him (in fact, I frequently get requests of exactly that nature from U.S. Presidents) but I can ignore that request because I'm not a government official or employee and even if I were, it would not be a legal order.

Decrees, by contrast, create law in themselves, and are thus binding on every citizen and resident. If the U.S. President had the decree powers that someone like Chavez has, he could order everyone to switch from Pepsi to Coke or order Pepsi to shut down.

But in reality, the closest to that the President could actually come with Executive Orders would be to "decree" that cola purchases by the government be limited to Coke.

Respectfully,
Myriad
 
Myriad said:
Executive Orders from the U.S. President are directives to (and only to) the U.S. Government. (Much like the executive orders of any organization apply only to employees and functionaries of that organization. Which is why the CEO of Coca-Cola can order that the company lower its prices or change the recipe, but cannot not issue an Executive Order for everyone to switch from Pepsi to Coke or for Pepsi to shut down.)

That's not the only constraint on U.S. Presidential Executive Orders, but it's one of the more important ones. The President can request that I send money to his party or vote for him (in fact, I frequently get requests of exactly that nature from U.S. Presidents) but I can ignore that request because I'm not a government official or employee and even if I were, it would not be a legal order.

Decrees, by contrast, create law in themselves, and are thus binding on every citizen and resident. If the U.S. President had the decree powers that someone like Chavez has, he could order everyone to switch from Pepsi to Coke or order Pepsi to shut down.

But in reality, the closest to that the President could actually come with Executive Orders would be to "decree" that cola purchases by the government be limited to Coke.

Respectfully,
Myriad
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Executive Order 9066 was not binding ?
or
Executive Order 13233 was also not law?
 
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