Either the contract stands up or it doesn't.
Right. So what does the contract say about the terms of completion? Do you have a copy?
Either the contract stands up or it doesn't.
Understood -- you're not a lawyer, but a non-lawyer trying to make a legal analysis.
As long as everyone who reads it is clear on that, they can take it for whatever they think it's worth.
Right. So what does the contract say about the terms of completion? Do you have a copy?
"For this Preliminary Demonstration to be considered successful, the Applicant must correctly identify which Subject from each trial group of six was in fact missing a kidney and correctly identify which kidney (left or right) was missing."
That's the whole of the written agreement between the two parties? There's no actual written contract?
If you don't know the answer to that, then why are you arguing so strenuously about the nature of the protocol as a contract?
I haven't been. My interest in this discussion has been very casual.
Only when you seemed to be bringing up your (lack of) credentials to support your interpretation did I bother commenting again.
So, I'll repeat the question -- is that the extent of the written agreement, or is there more?
Since you haven't done any basic research into the details of what we're talking about and your interest is merely casual, I will respond in kind.
I haven't been. My interest in this discussion has been very casual.
Only when you seemed to be bringing up your (lack of) credentials to support your interpretation did I bother commenting again.
So, I'll repeat the question -- is that the extent of the written agreement, or is there more?
Start from the beginning. Search here at the JREF forum for "VisionfromFeeling". Read all the threads about the claimant, the protocol, and the demonstration. Then go read all the discussions and commentary at the Stop VisionfromFeeling web site. You should also read everything related to the demonstration at this IIG page and its relevant links to familiarize yourself with the actual protocol which is being discussed here. Then go watch the video of the demonstration at USTREAM. And don't forget to read everything at Anita's own web site.
At the moment it appears there is no actual written contract; the IIG protocol is what UY and others are citing to. If that's the case, then yes, it's probably necessary to read all of the above to figure out what the contract actually is.
I was hopeful, since folks were talking about "the contract", that there was a written document somewhere. Under four corners that would make the discussion a heck of a lot easier. But it turns out "the contract" was just a shorthand way of referring to the product of UY's legal analysis.
UncaYimmy - I’ve changed the lottery scenario to be more like the IIG test . . .
You purchase a ticket in a lottery where the numbers of the tickets are in two halves (3726 - 2827).
There are two separate draws for each of the half-numbers and if both halve-numbers of your number are drawn you win, if not you lose.
The ticket half-numbers are on balls that are drawn at random from different barrels in two separate draws.
the draws are conducted and you don’t win, but you then find out that the in one of the draws the person running the draw didn’t put the ball with your half-number in the barrel.
Your other half-number was in the other barrel and draw however and as it wasn’t drawn you wouldn’t have won anyway so you can’t ask for your money back or a redraw.
You are saying that the fact you wouldn’t have won is legally more important than the fact you couldn’t have won. Is this correct?
Before I answer this question, let me qualify it by saying that lotteries are strictly regulated as are most forms of gambling. If there is a requirement that all drawings be 100% fair, then not only would you be entitled to a ticket refund (most likely a replacement ticket instead), the winner, if there was one, would not be entitled to the jackpot. This would be a matter of statute rather than common law.
Furthermore, the IIG and the claimant could write a contract that says if there are any mistakes in judging the results that all results are considered invalid. They could then spell out the remedies for such a situation, which might include the IIG paying out of pocket for a retest should they be the ones making a mistake. We're dealing with a contract that doesn't spell this out.
All that said, my answer is yes, the fact that the mistake by the lottery people did not actually prevent you from winning is the key point.
However, I think a lottery drawing is a terrible analogy because so many aspects of the case don't directly correlate to this case.
The claimant doesn't pay the IIG anything.
The IIG doesn't make a profit./QUOTE]
Nor did Blondie, but both had a value to be gained from winning or losing. Value doesn’t have to be represented by money. Both parties incurred some expenses in conducting the tests.
It's not a game of chance
Utter crap! Unless she had genuine x-ray ability then she could only win against the odds purely by chance. Absolutely a “game of chance”.
the claimant is actually supposed to do something to be successful rather than have the IIG do something that determines if she's successful by chance.
Yet you say - “It's not a game of chance”
The IIG has to do something by adhering to the protocol thereby allowing the claimant to be able to do something successful by chance or any other fair means. If there had been no people in the first test with a missing kidney how could she possibly successfully complete that test or the overall test? The claimant only has to do something successful to win the test not complete it. Don’t see how failing to win can be either a protocol violation or breach of contract.
Utter crap! Unless she had genuine x-ray ability then she could only win against the odds purely by chance. Absolutely a “game of chance”.
A test stops because a wrong answer is given not because the IIG makes a mistake. That the wrong answer was later found to be caused by a mistake made by the IIG is a completely different matter.Early Stopping by Mistake - How can the aggrieved party (claimant) be put in as good a position as if the other party (IIG) had fully performed? One remedy is to have the IIG reimburse her expenses. The other remedy is for specific performance, which means requiring a retest of all three trials at the expense of the IIG.
So what. How could she detect a missing kidney if all people had two kidneys?Well, essentially, this was her claim, - she could detect missing kidneys by "something like" x-ray vision". And that is what was tested.
Norm
A test stops because a wrong answer is given not because the IIG makes a mistake.
It doesn't matter unless you want to go for punitive damages, which is a whole other can of worms. Of course, that has nothing to do with whether the IIG should ****ing stop the ****ing test early if the claimant fails a trial.Who’s to know if not having a person with a missing kidney was a mistake or deliberate act?