kellyb
Penultimate Amazing
- Joined
- Jan 18, 2006
- Messages
- 12,632
How could it? Your statement was a suggestion.Yeah...was that suppose to have refuted my statement?
A doc who ignores a patient's social situation and preference is incompetent. It is a definite way of not having your patient follow through with their treatment.
"Mr Soandso, you have strep throat. Here are some antibiotic pills for it that you have to take for one week. Bye." Mr. Soandso hates taking pills. He take 2 days of antibiotics before stopping because he feels better. Later on he comes back with a peritonsilar abscess. This could've been fixed by offering Mr. Soandso a single intramuscular shot of penicillin.
"Mrs. Soandso, you have a mild pneumonia. Here is some antibiotics for it."
She tries to fill the prescription but its costs $800 because her insurance does not cover that brand. She decide she won't fill it due to the price. This could've been solved by giving an alternate and cheaper antibiotic.
Tell me. Was any of the above not medically appropriate?
"Incompetent" seems like a very harsh judgement, and I have a hard time thinking it's appropriate for physicians who prescribe evidence based treatments within the standard of care.
Those two examples do seem medically appropriate, just not ideal. Do you really think those are examples of incompetence?