Humphreys said:
The rock is empirically observable, another person's consciousness is not.
No. Certain properties of the rock are empirically observable. As I said you can not dirrectly experience the rock's existence. But, you can observe things about it. You can measure it.
And the same is true about other people's conciousness. We're not at a point now that we can get as much information about other people's experiences as we can about the rock but we certainly can see some things. We can infer some things from the way they react to stimuli. If your response to something burning your hand is the same as mine would be, if we measure both of our brainwaves under the same experience and find them to be similar, if we both avoid putting our hands on burners in the future, it makes sense to infer that we are in reality experiencing the same thing. And if after repeated observations we find that
everyone follows this pattern the inference gains even more weight. Certainly it seems to have more strength than a theory that says other do not experience pain.
Now, how do you know how the mass of a rock?
You can put it on a scale and measure see if it balances with a standard weight you have. But this only tells you that you observe it to balance right now. Well, because you have theory of the way balance scales work, and gravity, because you have a theory that says that if the two weights are the same then their mass is the same, you can infer the weight of the rock. But this too relies on a theory about the universe and is no more certain than that I am experiencing pain just like you.
1. Your experiences aren't empirically observable, only the physical processes are, and we can't know for a fact whether those processes cause you personally, to have experiences.
2. I know, even if it's an illusion, that there is a thing out there which I call a rock. But, I don't know that you have experiences.
3. I can't deny the existence of my own consciousness, but I can deny the existence of any rock you find me.
1. What if the physical processes are the experiences? We don't yet understand enough about them to show how this is so, but it's possible that one day we will. Regardless, we can see the outcome of those experiences, and the fact that the outcomes of my experiences tend to be similar to yours is good cause to suggest that we are in fact both having experiences.
2. a) You know that when you interact with this thing it behaves in certain ways and has certain properties that you've named "rock".
b) You know that you have experiences and this cause you to behave in certain ways and have certain properties.
c) You know that I behave in the same way and have the same properties (I mean this in a broad sense, such as reaction to pain).
d) Can you connect b and c? I'm not suggesting that it's possible to
prove experience, just that it's on about as firm ground as anything else.
I can't (despite what you think) touch them, I can't feel them, I can't see them, I don't know what colour they are, or where they're located, I can't pick them up, or smell them, if I can do anything at all it would be with some physical processes going on in your brain.
You can touch them if you touch my brain, but there's skull in the way. I know you don't accept this, but neither do I accept your supposition that it's not the case. You may not be able to feel my experiences now, but you can feel something similar by exposing yourself to the same stimulus. Here's an experiment you can preform:
Think of something you've never experienced before. Now, ask someone you know to describe what it's like. Then go and experience it for yourself. Was it in any way similar to the description? Does this suggest that the other person may in fact have experienced it as well? If not, what other explanation can you offer?
I don't know, it depends what consciousness is. If those atoms have some semblance of feeling to begin with, then I don't see why not.
What would it mean for atoms to have some semblance of feeling?
But if we found that the physical processes in your brain when experiencing "red" were the same as mine when experiencing "red" it would certainly seem likely that our experiences were the same. Would we have any reason so beleive they aren't?[/QUOTE]
Unless you presuppose that materialism is true, and that all consciousness is is the processes going on in our brain, then what reason would we have to presume they would be the same experience?
Here's why:
1. The phsyical state of the brain changes depending upon what it is feeling/thinking/recalling etc. Why would this be the case if it were not somehow connected to those thoughts/feelings/recollections?
This the same arguement as someone in pain acting like he's in pain, only stronger, because now there is no reason that the brain should look like that (after all, most of the time no one can see it) unless it is in fact the physical site of experience. Unless you can tell me why?
Try to remember, it's only materialism which states that consciousness is simply the processes going on in our brains. Other positions say there is something more going on, something we can't observe in any way because it's not made of material.
When a French person says 'rouge', he is describing his personal experience of the colour of blood, not yours, or mine, necessarily.
That's what I was saying. I said it's possible that there is a difference between my experience of red and yours. However, it's also possible that there isn't. One thing that suggests that there is no difference (or that if there is a difference, it's small) is that most people when asked to describe "red" will use similar words. If they were experiencing something completely different, why the similar vocabulary?
False analogy.
When we get a car, we are not getting anything new, there is no miracle occurring. Material does have the ability to move. Not without something acting on it, but it can move. A piece of paper doesn't move on its own, but I can shove it accross the room without a problem.
I don't think it is a false analogy. I shouldn't have said "move" although it's true enough. If you look at what I said I said "move on their own" as in under their own power. But please, let's leave that part of the analogy.
A car is capable of taking energy in the form of gasoline, and converting it into first thermal and then kinetic energy in order to move you from point A to point B in time T. How does it do this? Is there some property in matter that gives it this ability, but only works when you build up enough of it?
No. It does this because of the specific way it is designed. Just as the brain can experience thoughts and emotions because of the specific way it is designed. It's not the inherent properties of matter that allow this in the car any more than in the brain. Atoms no more think or feel than they drive around.
You're just totally, off the cuff denying the obvious hard problem of the existence of consciousness, and equating thoughts and feelings with mundane things like movement. Ridiculous.
Again, I appologise for the use of the word "move". That was not the property of cars that I was suggesting to be "unique" as in, not inherent in the matter that makes them up.
I could just as easily have used the analogy of a telephone. The matter that makes up a telephone does not have some semblance of the ability to communicate with other matter, but when assembled in a specific way, suddenly it can be used as a telephone.
Your analogy doesn't even make sense.
You can't have some semblance of an internal combustion engine, and internal combustion engines can't accumulate
That's the whole point. What doesn't make sense about the internal combustion engine also doesn't make sense about your understanding of conciousness.
PS by the way, I won't be able to come on tomorrow, but will try to get back when I can. 