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Is it true the claim of those who made the clairvoyance test at Princeton University (supposedly repeated at Friburgo and Duke Universities), that as they took a BIG set of tries , ("millions of guesses") the expected distribution of hits of those trying to guess the outcome of the next virtual throwing (coins, I asume) should be exactly 50% if there is not a real psi power?
As thousand of applicants had produced 50,2% to 50,5% of hits, that is THE proof that some clairvoyance exists in every human.
From my statistics-ignorant position I see some problems here. First, did really each applicant guessed "millions" of hits each one?. That should be the condition necesary to validate this "big samples aproximate distribution to 50%" claim.
Am I wrong?
Second, is it true that 0,2 to 0,5% away from 50% is statistically significative?
As thousand of applicants had produced 50,2% to 50,5% of hits, that is THE proof that some clairvoyance exists in every human.
From my statistics-ignorant position I see some problems here. First, did really each applicant guessed "millions" of hits each one?. That should be the condition necesary to validate this "big samples aproximate distribution to 50%" claim.
Am I wrong?
Second, is it true that 0,2 to 0,5% away from 50% is statistically significative?
if exactly 50% would be reached. There will be certain spread of results, probably Gaussian (depending on the actual test itself).