I'm not arguing for the cause of the differences, just that they exist.
You used the word effect in your priot post that would imply that the difference of IQ scores was an effect of the racial difference, perhaps I misread that but I think you used the word effect.
If the question is about race then it would be important to weed out the socio econmic factors associated with poverty.
I dunno what causes them-- it could be lead.
I don't think anyone knows what causes the difference, but it's not cultural bias.
That is the question is it not Hamlet?
A lot of people do believe that because of thier construction IQ tests are culturaly biased.
The tests are race blind in that they predict just as well for minorities as they do for whites.
The last set of correlation I saw were so low that i can't see them being predictors of much, except ability to take IQ test.
I'd submit there's a whole bunch of IQ tests I'd score really poorly on. But, calling it an iq test doesn't make it one. There are issues like reliability and validity that determine if the test indeed measures iq.
Which is why I have argues in the past that the tests need to be redesigned, say for various and targeted skills, work, social, quality of life, the methoid that was used to construct the MMPi could produce a series of quotient test that would probably have a 90% correlation with the target area.
As far as I know, unless the test measures "g", you can call it iq, but it wont predict any important social outcome. On the other hand, if the test measures g, it predicts every important social outcome, and unfortunately produces large race differences.