TillE,
I understand the sentiment but there are reasons for disagreeing with it, respectfuly,
first, the slippery slope of saying that a biological imperative justifies a crime, men for years have used it, 'I was aroused' as a defense
second is to draw the line, from the following scenario, say that the victim (female) agrees to remove her pants and allow herself to be stimulated clitoraly but does not agree to penetration? For too many years there has been a ' well she removed her bra' mentality.
third is the actual nature of consent: in the Kobe case the bystanders are already saying; "well she went to his room, so she knew what was going to happen, so she consented". These laws are to draw a clear line, consent to go to a room is not consent to have sex.
Imagine the following scenarion, you are totaly drunk one night, so drunk that you are barely consious, and you end up having sex in some ones car, first the person preforms fellatio upon you (assuming in this case that you are male) but then they try to penetrate your anus with thier finger. If you say no, does the other person have the right to penetrate you?
(TillE: I find you view point to be a very common one, and one that I would have to agree with to some extent, but there are reasons for the consent law to exist, how they will bear out in court is different)