Merton
Muse
- Joined
- Apr 19, 2012
- Messages
- 576
As an Objectivist, I would ask you to pick another name for your musings, then. We get enough flak as it is, and if you know your ideas are substantially different from Rand's it doesn't make sense to tie your thoughts to hers in name.
Fair enough.
The highlighted part direclty contradicts Objectivism.
How so?
Again, Rand wrote specifically about this subject, and demonstrated that voluntarily submitting to a commune/collective/group is WORSE than doing so under coersion. At least if you're coerced you didn't do it to yourself, which means you may be a victim. If you do it to yourself you're the perpetrator.
Again, I don't follow. The inherent willingness to help others is a bad thing?
Labor is necessary to add value to material items, but it is neither sufficient by itself nor is labor necessarily what converts unowned nature into property.
So is there a defining aspect of property then? Or is everything up for grabs?
I have to ask: which of Rand's works have you read? I'm not asking to be sarcasting or anything--I merely want to know what your understanding of the philosophy is, so that I know where I need to start in showing the errors you're making.
I haven't read a fiction novel in quite some time, so the only work of hers I have studied is the Introduction to Objectivist Epistemology.
Land IS property. It may not take effort to make, but it takes effort to convert to a useful purpose (even if that effort is only to put a fence around it and say "Stay out, I like my woods the way it is"). That effort--ie, making the land useful--is what allows land to become property (the USA did exactly that with the frontear, and while we can certainly debate whether they had the right to do so they did have the right idea for how to determine who owns unowned land).
I'm not going to address this because it is predicated upon the labor theory of property, which you do not accept. No need to put the cart before the horse.
Besides, by your logic ALL property would be "under democratic control". You can't have a stove without a house--so it's part of the land, by your logic. Can't have a TV without electricity, so it's public property as well. Can't have a bed.....can't have a computer.....can't have a couch.....I'm skeptical as to whether you can have cloths or not. Your line of reasoning will eventually lead to the total collectivisation of all property.
Not exactly. People can treat land as private property, but this privilege is granted by the community. A contract between the private entity and the community permits the "landowner" (technically a lessee) to use the natural resources in the area for personal benefit. Any buildings constructed on this land is considered the landowner's property until the lease expires, at which time it is returned to collective administration. Anything that can be removed from the house still belongs to the owner, and I see no reason why the owner couldn't bulldoze any buildings at the end of the lease either, if he or she were so inclined.
Besides, if the land isn't property neither are crops--which means FOOD isn't property. Neither are mines--which means MINERALS are "under democratic control". That pretty much eliminates all property right there, as all raw materials are either mined or grown. And the idea that you can own property but not the means of production is called "communism", just about as far away from Objectivism as you can get.
That's not the only aspect of communism, but yes, they do have that feature in common. Food is not property unless it requires labor input--I know we don't agree on this, but I'm just explaining my rationale--and so agricultural products would be considered the property of the landowner. Of course, if a community would rather grow their own food collectively, they can do that as well.