UndercoverElephant
Pachyderm of a Thousand Faces
- Joined
- Jan 17, 2002
- Messages
- 9,058
Yes, we can see where it might go: That brain processes and experiences are the same thing.
Yes, bingo!, there are one and the same.
Geoff, are you sure you don't mean to say that subjective experience and the description of brain processes are not the same thing?
No, Paul. My brain is working properly and I don't believe nonsensical rubbish.
Shall we go back and have another look at what was written?
FACT 1 : You have never directly experienced a brain process.
FACT 2 : You HAVE directly experienced the sensation of red.
Which of these FACTS are you going to challenge, Paul?
If you cannot challenge any of these FACTS then there is a clear way to distinguish between a brain process and a sensation of red. I know you want to make it more complicated than this, but I see no reason to allow this to happen. Either challenge one of these FACTS or admit that there is a way to distinguish between the two.
This might mean that feelings are something else entirely, or it might mean that they are the same thing.
Do you have a problem reading? I have repeatedly stated that whether you can distinguish between sensations of red and brain processes does not on its own lead to the conclusion that they are "not the same thing", at least in some sense or other which is yet to be clarified. So you have gained nothing by stating that they "might or might not be the same thing". That wasn't what you were asked. You were asked if it is possible to distinguish between them. And unless you are going to challenge one of the above FACTS, I do not see how you can claim that no such distinction is possible.
Do you have a way to resolve this question other than by waiting patiently for neuroscience to do it?
Yep. It's been resolved in this thread already - I am just waiting for the penny to drop and for Paul to realise what is happening. "sensations of red" and "brain processes" are both, in the end, just linguistic concepts. So the question is whether or not there is a fundamental way of distinguishing between these two concepts. And there is. Subjective experiences "feel/look/sound/smell" like something. Brain processes do not. Even if, in the end, it turns out that these two concepts (somehow) refer to "the same thing", you can still distinguish between the two concepts.
Unless, that is, you have totally lost your ability to think critically.
I repeat: if you are seriously trying to claim that there is no distinction possible then you are way, way beyond the merely narrow-minded level of Dawkins and Dennett. Neither of them would utter such a rank absurdity, because if they did so then their academic careers would be over. They would be ripped to pieces. Think about what you are actually saying.
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