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Materialism

Win said:
Chuckie:
Imagine a "red detection machine." It can distinguish between colors. Does it experience red?
Win, I think I misunderstood your example. So you are saying that in fact the machine does have different color receptors. Okay, fine, so it can tell a red ball from a blue ball (ooch) from a green ball. Now you are asking "Does it experience red?" Now that is a philosophical question. Unfortunately, it has nothing to do with Mary and her experiment. Mary does not posess the proper wiring to distinguish between colors, so red, green and blue look the same to her.
 
Chuckie:

Okay, then we have a scientific disagreement which could be answered by actually performing the experiment. Only if she did in fact "see red" differently from blue and green could we then go on to have a philosophical discussion.

Again, I don't think discrimination bewteen colors has anything to do with the thought experiment.

The issue is whether there's any new content in her visual field, regardless of whether she can discriminate between the different colors there.

If, of course, there's no difference, that is to say, on emerging from the room Mary will still see the world in black and white and grey, then we'll have to recast the experiment. But, as you say, that's a scientific question.

I think I recall some studies on people with cataracts from birth who have had the condition corrected. They don't see very well, because they never "learned how to see," but there is still new sensory input.
 
Did you notice my deliberate mistake? ;)

If we ask Mary to to write an essay to describe the new knoweldge she gained by finally experiencing the emotional power of music she would not be able to do so adequately. Surely she has learned something new, something indescribable. Something that can only ever be subjective but that is nevertheless very real indeed. If the new knowledge cannot be described in terms of the physical model of the Universe then physicalism fails. For materialism to stand you must say that (in theory) it is possible to accurately define the emotional power of music in terms of physical concepts.
 
Win said:
I'm going to ask one more time: Can you point me to a definition of reductive materialism or physicalism that states this requirement. Here's two that don't:
They sure do. Read more carefully.
Cripes, this is like pulling teeth. Could you explain how it does, since I obviously don't understand?

That's true, if reductive materialism is correct. But it's our intuition that she has, in fact, learned something new. The contradiction of that intuition and the requirements of reductive materialism is what the thought experiment is supposed to highlight.
This is all about intuition? Who the hell cares? You've been wasting my time debating whose intuition is correct? Ooh, I think physicalism is false because my intuition tells me that Mary might learn something new, even though I refuse even to reach an agreement about what she knew before she left the room.

Really, people, masturbation is more enjoyable.

~~ Paul
 
Chuckie:

Mary does not posess the proper wiring to distinguish between colors, so red, green and blue look the same to her.

But different than what things looked like in her black and white room?

As I said, it's like the economist at the bottom of the well, but I think i can come up with some form of sensory deprevation that will allow for a fix without rewiring Mary's brain, but still giving new sensory input.

If I can get that, the thought experiment goes through.

Bill:

Thank you so much for the clarification. So you are now simply in the midst of circular reasoning. How is that any better?

For a start, it's not an argument from ignorance, and for the reason I pointed out to you.

Still, I didn't stop you from writing a mocking post where you presumed to lecture me.

Anyway, it's not circular reasoning either.

But let's not fight. I'm sorry I was short with you. I just don't like hit and run posts that make confident but bogus assertions.

Bury the hatchet?
 
Paul C. Anagnostopoulos said:

Really, people, masturbation is more enjoyable.

~~ Paul

This is masturbation to them. You don't want to see the ejaculate. Oh, wait, that's exactly what we've been seeing, isn't it?

Cheers,
 
UcE said:
Let's change it completely. Instead of learning everything about red, Mary learns everything that can be known about sounds and about musical theory. However, she is deprived of all sounds that were created as artistic works, including poetry. She knows how to communicate with speech though. We have now eliminated the need to learn how to interpret auditory signals.
Then of course she learns new sounds when she leaves the room. She also learns that there is a large stone to the left of the door of her room. So what?

~~ Paul
 
Paul:

It's hard to reconcile this:

Cripes, this is like pulling teeth. Could you explain how it does, since I obviously don't understand?

with this:

This is all about intuition? Who the hell cares? You've been wasting my time debating whose intuition is correct?

Why should I waste my time explaining things to someone who's going to accuse me of wasting his time because, I guess, I've been forcing him to read my posts.

When you make a post that says unequivocally, this says that, I'm not inclined to help you out. If, on the other hand, you approached it by saying, I've read some descriptions of reductive materialism and I can't see how they related to the Mary thought experiment; can you clarify it for me, I might be more disposed.
 
UndercoverElephant said:
ChuckieR

Let's change it completely. Instead of learning everything about red, Mary learns everything that can be known about sounds and about musical theory. However, she is deprived of all sounds that were created as artistic works, including poetry. She knows how to communicate with speech though. We have now eliminated the need to learn how to interpret auditory signals.

On her 20th Birthday we ask her to write an essay on the emotive power of music.

Then we play her Beethovens 5th symphony, Amazing Grace played on the bagpipes and finish off with 'A Day in the Life" by the Beatles.

Then we ask to her to write another essay on the emotive power of music.

Will the new essay contain any new information?
Absolutely! She has had new experiences that she hadn't had before, and she can distinguish them from her previous experiences. If I hear a new song it may have an emotional effect on me too. Of course, we are assuming that she is exposed to enough different sounds during her development, so that she has the proper neural wiring to at least "hear" sounds and distinguish different notes.

So that demonstrates that reading about music and hearing music are two different things. Is that interesting in some way?

Her early development has allowed her to hear music by wiring her brain for hearing. But it has not allowed her to distinguish between colors. So looking at a rainbow outside the room will seem exactly the same to her as when she looked at black and white photos of rainbows inside the room.

Is this starting to make the problem more clear now?
 
Win said:
I think I recall some studies on people with cataracts from birth who have had the condition corrected. They don't see very well, because they never "learned how to see," but there is still new sensory input.
Of course there is new sensory input. There is always new sensory input. That can't be what the KA is about.

Folks, it's really time to stop, collect our thoughts, and agree on what the premises and conclusion of the KA are all about. First, though, we should agree on a definition of physicalism.

If we don't, this just continues to be a masturbafest.

~~ Paul
 
Win, relax. I was using the generic you when complaining about having my time wasted. But really, this can't be just about intuition. If it is, then we should dump it overboard and wait until we know more neuroscience.

~~ Paul
 
Paul C. Anagnostopoulos said:
UcE said:
Then of course she learns new sounds when she leaves the room. She also learns that there is a large stone to the left of the door of her room. So what?

~~ Paul

The 'new knowledge' I am talking about is not the actual notes of Beethovens 5th, and not the location of actual physical objects - those are both objective items of knowledge. I refered specifically to knowledge of the emotive power of music - i.e. something totally subjective but which should be derivable from the objective world if physicalism is true. If physicalism is true then we should be able to physically describe the experience of red and the experience of being overwhelmed by music..
 
Paul:

Win, relax. I was using the generic you when complaining about having my time wasted. But really, this can't be just about intuition. If it is, then we should dump it overboard and wait until we know more neuroscience.

Sorry. My mistake. I'm a little prickly. ;)

What it's about is the fact that if you want to maintain that Mary learns something new, materialism is false.

So, the though experiment does tell us something. It undermines reductive materialism, and clears the decks, as it were, leaving eliminative materialism, metaphysical materialism and property dualism as the most attractive remaining options.

Oh yeah, and idealism. ;)
 
ChuckieR said:
Her early development has allowed her to hear music by wiring her brain for hearing. But it has not allowed her to distinguish between colors. So looking at a rainbow outside the room will seem exactly the same to her as when she looked at black and white photos of rainbows inside the room.

Is this starting to make the problem more clear now?

I'm a bit clearer on your position, yes.

Yes, she has the physical ability to hear sounds, but she has never heard music before. There is a difference between non-musical sound and musical-sound and it has something to do with the subjective state of the musician who wrote the music. When that music is recieved in the listeners mind it also generates something new that non-musical sound does not. When Mary hears music for the first time she learns something totally impossible to describe objectively, but well-known to every music lover. That 'thing' she learns cannot ever be described physically, no matter how much Mary already learned about physics, maths and music theory. This is like the experience of seeing red - you can never objectively, physically describe the experience of seeing red, or of being moved by music.

Any description of the physical processes associated with the neural perception of sound will lack the information about the emotive power of music.
 
davidsmith73,

I can step out of this idea (a separate objective reality), so long as you realize that the scientific method, as it is formally defined, does not exist there.
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I knew that anyway. However, it may exist in a different form. A form that does not take anything away from its ability to operate but one that brings new meaning to what it is describing.

I do not deny the possibility that you could construct a different logically framework from which the scientific method would be logically valid. When you come up with one, let me know. At that point we can discuss the relative merits of it versus physicalism.

As it is, none of the various forms of idealism or dualism that I have ever heard of can manage this.

I already said that they could continue to perform these methods. The point is that they would no longer have any logical justification behind those methods. Science would cease to be a logical framework, and would just become an art, practiced a certain way out of tradition.
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No. The justification behind the methods would be the same. Specifically, that observation and theory agree. What the theory relates to and the reasons for its limitation in fully describing what it refers to would have changed.

It is not that simple. The very claim that the theory and observation agree can only be made within a logical framework that makes some basic assumptions about both the nature of reality and observation.

Why? When you understand why scientific evidence allows us to logically draw conclusions from our observations, you will understand why it could no longer do so under solipsism.
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Yet again, you have jumped back into your materialist position. What you are really saying above is:
When you understand why scientific evidence allows us to logically draw conclusions about an objective reality from our, you will understand why it could no longer do so under solipsism.

You do not understand why it allows us to draw any conclusions at all from our observations. The assumption of objectivity is one of those reasons. Without that assumption, we cannot logically conclude anything from our observations.

What we could do is draw conclusions as though the assumption of objectivity were true, even though we don't believe it is, but that would not be logical.

The problem is that you are already thinking of science as some heuristic algorithm, so eliminating the axioms of science is no big deal for you.
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Whether I think its a big deal is not relevant. I don't know what you mean by heuristic algorithm.

A heuristic algorithm is one that seems to work, but you don't really understand why.

What you fail to understand is that without those axioms, science is no longer logically coherent.
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Only with respect to assuming there is an objective reality.

That is a fundamental axiom of science. Take it away, and none of the conclusions which use it as a premise are valid any more.

David: Your observations do not behave exactly as though the assumptions of objective reality were true.

Stimpy: Of course they do.
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They clearly do not. Give me an example of an observation that behaved exactly as though the assumptions of objective reality were true. Every observation contains a degree of inexactness to these mathematical relationships.

All of them. I never said anything about observations behaving exactly as though our mathematical theories were 100% accurate.

Ahem. You said this earlier on in the very same post:
"I can step out of this idea, so long as you realize that the scientific method, as it is formally defined, does not exist there."

So the scientific method doesn't exist and Science doesn't exist under my philosophy, yet somehow I will be able to work out F=ma !

No, you won't. Not without making assumptions you believe to be false, anyway.

It is really easy to take scientific knowledge that we already have, and say "that is consistent with my philosophy". The question is, could you start with you philosophy, and without making any additional assumptions conclude those scientific facts?

Dr. Stupid
 
UcE said:
The 'new knowledge' I am talking about is not the actual notes of Beethovens 5th, and not the location of actual physical objects - those are both objective items of knowledge. I refered specifically to knowledge of the emotive power of music - i.e. something totally subjective but which should be derivable from the objective world if physicalism is true. If physicalism is true then we should be able to physically describe the experience of red and the experience of being overwhelmed by music.
Wait, I thought you were insisting that we should be able to experience these things, not just describe the experience.

Win, no problem.
So, the though experiment does tell us something. It undermines reductive materialism, and clears the decks, as it were, leaving eliminative materialism, metaphysical materialism and property dualism as the most attractive remaining options.
I don't know what any of those things are, and apparently no one is going to bother to tell me. But anyway, how can we agree whether Mary learns anything new if we can't even agree what she knows when she leaves the room?

~~ Paul
 
UcE said:
That 'thing' she learns cannot ever be described physically, no matter how much Mary already learned about physics, maths and music theory. This is like the experience of seeing red - you can never objectively, physically describe the experience of seeing red, or of being moved by music.
Are you saying that you can't describe the experience in such a way as to cause another person to have the experience? If so, what does this have to do with reductive materialism?

Hint: I'm trying to get someone to define reductive materialism.

~~ Paul
 
Chuckie :

Perhaps this might help too.

The important difference between the experience of red and the physical facts about brain processes is that the physical/objective information has meaning with respect to an agreed common set of concepts about the physical world and the "experience" information has meaning with respect to what you refer to as "I" - your inner being if you like. With the musical case then we have a direct correspondence - all of the objective information about sound, music theory, and aural brain processes have meaning with respect to the physical world but carried within the music is some other information which originally had meaning to the aritists "I". This music then goes via the physical world into the mind of another person, who somehow extracts it from the mathematical data and contructs a new internal meaning for it with respect to their own "I". It is the presence of this information that turns it from sound into music. The KA spins not ones ability to learn how to recieve this 'extra information' but on the fact that it only has meaning with respect to the subject i.e. "I". If you look carefully you will find that this "subject" is the thing which is missing from materialism. If you take the eliminative materiaist model, posit the existence of a new perspective on that model, then all the problems go away. If materialism could define "I" then it could explain how a brian process differs from a qualia. But it doesn't. Neither does property dualism for that matter, but some philosophies do.
 
Win,

Are you assuming that Mary's full set of physical facts includes the neural connections established when a normal person sees color?
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No. Look, I think there's been a serious misunderstanding at work here. When Mary sees red for the first time, if reductive materialism is true, she'll say, yeah, yeah, nothing surprising here; I already knew exactly what this would be like.

No, she wouldn't. Because as I already pointed out, she will not have the memory of seeing red.

Let's look at this another way. Let's imagine this exact same thought experiment under the framework of property dualism.

Mary has never seen red. She is presented with all the physical facts about seeing red. We will assume that she is actually capable of understanding and processing all of this information.

Now may sees red for the first time. Does she gain anything new?

The dualist would clearly say "yes, she gains the knowledge of what it is like to see red". But is that all she gains?

No. Even under property dualism, she will gain the memory of having seen red. And even under property dualism, that memory is a physical structure in her brain. She is still physically different after seeing red than before. Knowing all the physical facts about red doesn't give her the memory of seeing red.

If this is a contradiction under physicalism, then why is it not a contradiction under property dualism?

Let's go a step further. Let's put a p-zombie in the room instead.

You have claimed that a p-zombie is physically identical to a person, except that it does not have phenomenal consciousness. You have also claimed that such critters are logically possible.

So, we do the same experiment, when the p-zombie sees red for the first time, will it gain anything?

Of course it will. It will gain the memory of seeing red.

The apparent dualism here is the fact that there are two types of knowledge: empirical and abstract. Even in property dualism, a person (or zombie) can only get abstract knowledge from a book. They have to actually see red to get the empirical knowledge. Even the p-zombie has empirical knowledge, so the empirical knowledge is not phenomenal.

There are only two conclusions that can be drawn. Either the existence of both empirical and abstract knowledge do not invalidate physicalism, or they invalidate property dualism too.


As I said before, none of this has anything to do with philosophy. It has to do with how the brain works. The thought experiment never even gets to the point of dealing with the phenomenal. It falls apart as soon as it assumes that Mary could possibly gain the memory of seeing red by reading about red in a book.

This is the reason I gave the alternative thought experiment, where a robot alters Mary's brain surgically. After all, the real question this thought experiment is trying to ask is: If Mary was physically identical to somebody who has had the experience of seeing red, would she gain anything new by actually seeing red.

Naturally, I claim she would not. Do you think she would? If so, what? Would her brain be aware of it? Could her brain be aware of it?

If nothing else, I think this highlights the central problem I have with epiphenomenalism. If I altered Mary's brain is such a way as to be identical to the way it would be if she had experienced seeing red, her brain could not possibly tell the difference. But you must assert that she would be able to tell the difference. Could she vocalize that fact? If so, then you must assert that the p-zombie would also claim that it could tell the difference. But that is a contradiction, since the p-zombie is physically identical to the way it would have been if it had actually seen red, in which case it would not claim it could tell the difference.

Dr. Stupid
 

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