What I was trying to hint at is not that we have bodies to measure with respect to, but that in your thought experiment, despite the initial lack of such bodies you do end up with them when the system begins to rotate. If you start off with your rocket system non-rotating with the rope slack and then spin it up, the rocket exhaust provides a reference against which you can measure the rotation. More generally, with any non-rotating initial system, if you spin it up then something must have the corresponding 'negative' angular momentum to balance the 'positive' angular momentum of the thing you've postulated. Does this exhaust provide what's needed in the same way a (on average on large scales) uniform distribution of matter would in Mach's view?
It's a nice idea, but it doesn't work that way in GR. The force in the rope is totally independent of what happens to the rocket exhaust. For example there could be a big sphere of mass out there, and someone could grab the exhaust and smear it all over that sphere. In that case it would have precisely zero effect on the rockets.
Or you could just set the gravitational constant to zero, in which case the exhaust again has precisely zero effect.
How does a distant body accelerating with you define a rest frame for your acceleration? How can a distant body define anything if it can not be observed?
Ask Mach. But it could presumably be observed by its effect.
If someone is asserting an absolute yet indefinable reference frame to measure acceleration against, then I would call that crazy.
I don't know what you mean by indefinable, but otherwise that sounds exactly like what GR does.
Certainly the statement of Mach’s principle as “Mass there influences inertia here” is consistent with General Relativity.
Influences, OK, but not determines. That's the whole point of this thread.
The fact is that Einstein developed General Relativity based on his interpretation of “Mach’s principle” and did not perceive a conflict.
He seems to have meant different things by it at different times. I presented a clear version above it here, which may or may not have been Mach's actual view, and argued that GR refutes that version.
However in some ways GR is closer to Mach than it is to Newton; in other ways, it's closer to Newton. Really, it's just different than either.
So I think that when people make an assertion they claim to represent “Mach’s Principle” saying that principle is somehow in conflict with General Relativity then it is simply their interpretation of “Mach’s Principle” that is in conflict with Einstein’s interpretation. Since Mach’s statements upon which those interpretations of that principle are based are so vague, I do not see any great significance in that people’s different interpretations would be in conflict.
I agree, particularly since Einstein himself wasn't very consistent on this. That's why I made clear what I meant by Mach's principle.
Incidentally, I thought Mach died in 1916. Why would E. write a letter to him in 1923? Anyway, the scenario he mentions in that letter is a specific case and is more complicated than the simple example above. It doesn't demonstrate the form of M's principle I gave to be correct; on the contrary, it's actually more evidence against it.