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John vs Mark Late Easter Article

ReasonableDoubt said:
That pretty much sums it up. In particular, the argument that 'Mark' unnecessarily fabricated Nazareth seems particularly weak. If, however, it could be shown that Matthew 2:23 reflects an oral tradition available to Mark, the situation would become somewhat more interesting. ;)

In defense, the skeptics posit Nazareth was confused from another term, not created. They also accept Markan priority and believe Mt and Lk and John all received an imaginary location in Galilee from Mark and never objected to it. The fact of its atttestation in independent sources, coupled with philological grounds and excavation rules this all out as well. The unlikelihood of creating it attests to it as the hometown of Jesus. Can anything good come from Nazeth?

Not to mention Mark may have been written just North of Galile, not in Rome.

Plus Matthew and Luke both (independently) have that same form (Nazara) in chapter 4 of their works. This seems to be a "third" witness to Nazareth.

Vinnie
 
ReasonableDoubt said:

What a wondrous example of confirmation bias run amok. It is, frankly, more than sad to see some, in a pathetic caricature of skepticism, trip over themselves to pay homage to such an absurd substitute for scholarship, proving themselves methodologically no better than the worst of the YEC crowd. :(
Did you even read the presentation?

Do you have anything that refutes it point by point? Or even a few of the points?

For instance:
'and brought him to the precipice of the mountain that their city was built upon.' ( Luke 4 )
What mountain? What precipice ?

Why no Old Testament documentation of ' Nazareth ' ? Why no mention of a town named Nazareth outside of the Gospels ?

Is it always ' confirmation bias run amok ', when you find yourself lacking in rebuttal material ?
 
Diogenes said:
Did you even read the presentation?

Do you have anything that refutes it point by point? Or even a few of the points?
...

Is it always ' confirmation bias run amok ', when you find yourself lacking in rebuttal material ?
One thing I didn't understand too well in that presentation was his evaluation of the Caesarea Maritima inscription (okay, I read the page rather quickly). It seems that for a number of reputable experts, the discovery of the inscription closed the Nazareth debate. This fellow's analysis of it just seemed to trail off without a real conclusion.
 
Diogenes said:
Did you even read the presentation?
Yes.

Diogenes said:
Do you have anything that refutes it point by point? Or even a few of the points?
It is an argument from absence propped up by ad hominem. There is little to refute. So, for example, in addressing the archaeology of the region, he makes snide reference to "Catholic archaeologists", "Christian Hero No 1", "Christian Hero No 2" while noting thet "In truth, the scanty evidence is consistent with the site being used as a single family farm over many centuries – and a single family farm does not make a village."But his proclamation of truth conveniently omits any scholarly argument whatsoever. Nor are we told anything about Mr. Humphreys' experience in archaeology. Surely if these Christian Heros are to be held suspect because of their religious beliefs, we have every right to question unsubstantiated assertions from someone with no apparent expertise, but with a very apparent agenda.

Nor is Mr. Humphreys beyond a little linguistic sleight-of-hand. In a sidebar, he cleverly writes: "Josephus mentions 45 cities and villages of Galilee – yet Nazareth not at all." The clear suggestion is that Josephus identifies these villages, but omits Narareth from the list. This is simply not the case. As can be seen below, Josephus speaks of many villages about" Sepphoris, but nowhere provides anything suggestive of an exhaustive list of the names of these villages. The sidebar is simply disingenuous.

Note, by the way, that there is no reference to specific Jesephus text - another example of the type of scholarship you so readily embrace.

A further example of disingenuous argumentation is to be found in his discussion of the Caesarea inscription. He first quotes Crossan: "The eighteenth priestly course [called] Hapizzez, [resettled at] Nasareth." and then clarifies "A few Jewish priests and their families made up a small settlement in the southeast of the valley until the 4th century."

By what alchemy did the "eighteenth priestly course" become no more than "A few Jewish priests"? Certainly this 'scholarly' work of yours provides not a hint, much less anything approaching evidence. Let's see if we can do any better.

The Encyclopaedia Judaica writes: "When Antiochus III granted rights to Jerusalem he freed the priests from a series of taxes. Hecataeus estimated their number in his time at 1,500 but it is possible that he was only referring to Jerusalem, since many of them were settled in the country towns and villages of Judea and southern Samaria and only went up to Jerusalem in accordance with their duty in the system of priestly watches." If we accept 1500 as a total, and assume it to be divided into 24 equal watches or courses, we get a priestly contingent of roughly 62 families "[resettled at] Nasareth." Since it is unlikely that one would have a village populated entirely, or even predominantly, by priests, Mr. Humphreys' "a few Jewish priests" suddenly becomes a village which could reasonably be presumed to contain a couple hundred families, and perhaps much more.

Did it? I haven't a clue, and neither does Mr. Humphreys. The sole difference is that he pretends otherwise while, again, offering nothing in the way of evidence. And, again, this is the type of agenda-driven apologetics that you admire as scholarship.

Diogenes said:
Why no Old Testament documentation of ' Nazareth ' ? Why no mention of a town named Nazareth outside of the Gospels ?
A stunning argument. Shall we likewise study, e.g., the Federalist Papers and de Tocqueville's Democracy in America, and declare fictive all towns not referenced in one of those works?

At the same time, given ...
To be sure, the greatest cities of Galilee, O Justus! were Sepphoris, and thy country Tiberias. But Sepphoris, situated in the very midst of Galilee, and having many villages about it, and able with ease to have been bold and troublesome to the Romans, if they had so pleased, yet did it resolve to continue faithful to those their masters, ...

- see below, also Josephus
... shall we also consider references to these villages some clever Christian redaction?

Diogenes said:
Is it always ' confirmation bias run amok ', when you find yourself lacking in rebuttal material ?
That was an inane question. That you apparently consider the site an example of scholarship speaks volumes.

Certainly, I can do no better than Kirby's summary ...
J.D. Crossan comments on the inscription mentioning Nazareth (_The Historical Jesus_, p. 15):
"The very first mention of Nazareth in any non-Christian text comes from a fragmented inscription on a piece of dark gray marble excavated at Caesarea in August of 1962 and dating from the third or fourth century of the common era. In 70 C.E., during the First Roman-Jewish War, the Temple of Jerusalem was totally destroyed by the future emperor Titus, and, at the end of the Third Roman-Jewish War in 135 C.E., the defeated Jews were expelled from the territory of Jerusalem, renamed Aelia Capitolina by the emperor Hadrian.

The surviving priests, divided from ancient times into twenty-four courses that took weekly turns in Temple service, were eventually reorganized and resettled in various Galilean towns and villages. A list of those assignments was affixed to the wall of Caesarea's synagoge built around the year 300 C.E. The restored line reads: 'The eighteenth priestly course [called] Hapizzez, [resettled at] Nazareth.' Both communal relocation and synagogal inscription served, no doubt, both to recall the Second Temple's past and to await a Third Temple's future (Vardaman; Avi-Yonah)."

So this inscription comes from the third or fourth century and purports to record the existence of this village in the mid second century.

Personally, I have no qualms with the existence of a village called Nazareth in the first century. The two sources which are usually called upon to cast doubt on Nazareth are Josephus, who names fourty-five towns in Galilee, and the Talmud, which names sixty-three Galilean towns. The latter can be dismissed because the Talmud is roughly contemporaneous with this inscription and thus only shows that Nazareth existed without necessarily having to be included in a list of towns. Josephus most likely did not mention Nazareth because it was merely one of a few satellites to the major city of Sepphoris, three or four miles away.

Josephus speaks of Sepphoris as "situated in the heart of Galilee, surrounded by numerous villages" (Life 346), and Nazareth would be among those unnamed villages.

Archaeological digs indicate that the site of Nazareth, although occupied from quite ancient times, seems to have been refounded in the second century BCE (ibid., pp. 15-16). It is at from this period forward that the most extensive remains are found. Crossan suggests that the refounding of Nazareth may be connected to the annexation of Galilee at approximately the same time by the Hasmoneans.

It is sensible enough to assume that the name of the village would have remained constant unless there was some kind of major upheaval after its refounding, of which there is no indication.

Finally, even if the Gospels are regarded as utter fiction, it is not daring to suggest that the mention of Nazareth in them provides a modicum of evidence for the existence of a first century village in Galilee of the same name. The writer of Mark does evince at least minimal knowledge of the geography of Galilee. Even if we suppose that the author hit upon the name of Nazareth as a punning reference to the word for branch or some other linguistic legerdemain, it is entirely plausible that the author had heard of a village called Nazareth and that this informed the writing of his fiction. This would further explain why this is not corrected by the authors of Matthew, Luke, or John.

It is just easier to suppose that the silly village of the name had historical reality -- at the very least, I do not believe that this is a very good reason to cast aspersions on the texts.

- see Peter Kirby on Nazareth [emphasis added - RD]
None of this is to suggest that the historicity of a 1st century CE Nazareth has been conclusively proven. But to suggest that there is a consensus to the contrary is simply wrong, and to point to Humphreys as the exemplar of some such scholarly consensus is ludicrous. If someone came to you with comparable argumentation in support of Noah's Ark or the Exodus/Conquest you would laugh in his face. That you choose here to applaud rather than laugh is not skepticism but, as previously noted, naked confirmation bias.
 
Vinnie said:
Not to mention Mark may have been written just North of Galile, not in Rome.

Mark was too unfamiliar with the geography to have actually lived in the area.
 
triadboy said:


Mark was too unfamiliar with the geography to have actually lived in the area.
From the main essay on Mark by Prof. Daniel J. Harrington contained in The New Jerome Biblical Commentary:
That Mark wrote in Rome is suggested not only by Papias but also by Latin loanwords in the Greek text and by the atmosphere of impending persecution that pervades the Gospel. Since Mark 13 does not presuppose the destruction of the Jerusalem Temple, the Gospel was most likely composed before AD 70. A setting in the 60s in Rome seems best, for then the Christian community lived under the threat (or reality) of persecution and looked upon incipient revolt in Palestine as a source of potential trouble for the Jewish (and even Gentile) Christians at Rome.
 
ReasonableDoubt said:


Certainly, I can do no better than Kirby's summary ...


I liked Kirby's summary.. It seems to do little if anything to strengthen a case for a 1st century Nazareth.. ( a settlement that went by that name, at that time .. )
Mostly a case of ' absence of evidence is not ( conclusive )evidence of absence ' .



I'm sorry if you are irritated at my glee over the ' JesusNeverExisted ' site ...
I find it entertaining, while managing to offer some interesting questions..
And yes, I am biased in that regard, as I suspect you are a bit biased toward your perspective..
 
ceo_esq said:
[/i] That Mark wrote in Rome is suggested not only by Papias but ...


Don't you love evidence from Papias? Here is the hand-down then:

"Jesus" to Peter

Peter to Mark the Presbyter (same Mark?)

Mark to Papias

Papias quoted by Eusubius!

Eusubias is a church father known to have said (paraphrasing): Lying for the benefit of furthering the Gospels and the Lord is OK


Since Mark 13 does not presuppose the destruction of the Jerusalem Temple...

Why does he say this?
 
Diogenes said:
I liked Kirby's summary.. It seems to do little if anything to strengthen a case for a 1st century Nazareth ... Mostly a case of ' absence of evidence is not ( conclusive )evidence of absence '.
I'm sorry, but that strikes me as a rather self-serving interpretation of Kirby's views. I think most readers would conclude that Kirby sees the existence of a 1st century Nazareth as the more reasonable conclusion given the information available. Conversely, you have yet to explain why Mark would have found it necessary, or even useful, to fabricate such a village.

Diogenes said:
I'm sorry if you are irritated at my glee over the ' JesusNeverExisted ' site ...
I believe that I indicated that I found it rather sad. Best I can tell, you are the one who became irritated.

Diogenes said:
I find it entertaining, while managing to offer some interesting questions.
I found it exemplary of ad hominem attack and trashy scholarship. That you found it intertaining is irrelevant. That you found it compelling is unfortunate. Also unfortunate is that you challenge me to provide specifics and then simply ignore the comments provided.

Diogenes said:
And yes, I am biased in that regard, as I suspect you are a bit biased toward your perspective..
Of course, but hopefully not so biased as to 'gleefully' (i.e., zealously) promote bad argumentation as good.
 
triadboy said:
Eusubias is a church father known to have said (paraphrasing): Lying for the benefit of furthering the Gospels and the Lord is OK
He says this precisely where? I predict that (a) you don't know, (b) you never knew, and (c) you won't be able to come up with the answer. :(
 
triadboy said:
Why does he say this [that Mark 13 does not presuppose the destruction of the Jerusalem Temple]?
Hard to tell exactly, but here's what Prof. Harrington has to say later in the same essay, where he specifically addresses Mark 13:2:
In prophesying the Temple's destriction, Jesus stood in the tradition of OT prophets (see Mic 3:12; Jer 26:18). There is no need to assume that this prediction reflects the events of AD 70, though early Christians saw in those events the fulfillment of Jesus' prediction.
In researching this response, I also came across references to how the alteration of the emphasis of this section in Matthew and Luke from the destruction of the Temple and the Anti-Christ figure to the destruction of Jerusalem makes more sense if they were looking back from a post- AD 70 perspective and Mark was looking forward from a pre- AD 70 perspective (even if only by a few years).

In addition, the Wikipedia article on the Gospel of Mark notes:
Comments attributed to Jesus Christ in Mark 13:1-2 have been seen as a reference to the destruction of the Temple, which could place the work after AD 70; however, the passage predicts that the Temple would be torn down completely; it was destroyed by fire (Josephus, Jewish War VI), and one wall still stands. This inaccuracy, which is not repeated in the otherwise-identical sections of the other Synoptic Gospels, could place the passage before the destruction of Jerusalem.
It's probable that Harrington had such things in mind when he suggested that Mark 13 is not strictly linked in any obvious way to the events of AD 70.
 
ReasonableDoubt said:
He says this precisely where? I predict that (a) you don't know, (b) you never knew, and (c) you won't be able to come up with the answer. :(
I believe he is repeating the allegation about Eusebius that's discussed here.
 
ReasonableDoubt said:
He says this precisely where? I predict that (a) you don't know, (b) you never knew, and (c) you won't be able to come up with the answer. :(

Bishop Eusebius, the official propagandist for Constantine, entitles the 32nd Chapter of his 12th Book of Evangelical Preparation:

How it may be Lawful and Fitting to use Falsehood as a Medicine, and for the Benefit of those who Want to be Deceived.

Eusebius is notoriously the author of a great many falsehoods – but then he does warn us in his infamous history:

'We shall introduce into this history in general only those events which may be useful first to ourselves and afterwards to posterity.'
(Ecclesiastical History, Vol. 8, chapter 2).

http://www.jesusneverexisted.com/lying.htm

There are more liars there also. BTW, KS_Skeptic turned me on to this site. I'm using it now, but I've known about Eusebius' lies for a long time from other readings.
 
Some more data to help understand what Eusebius was really saying (if, indeed, he even coined his own chapter headings, which according to the information from the earlier link is not certain).
 
I love this one.

To confute the opposer ... one argues as one pleases, saying one thing while one means another ... Origen, Eusebius [et al] write at great length ... Sometimes it is true, they are compelled to say not what they think but what is useful.
– St Jerome, c.380
 
Some more

Bishop Eusebius of Caesarea, the great "Father of Church History" (324 A.D.) whom Niebuhr terms "a very dishonest writer," -- of which we shall see many notable instances, -- says this: "But it is not our place to describe the sad misfortunes which finally came upon [the Christians], as we do not think it proper, moreover, to, record their divisions and unnatural conduct to each other before the persecution -- [by Diocletian, 305 A.D.]. Wherefore we have decided to relate nothing concerning them except things in which we can vindicate the Divine judgment. ... But we shall introduce into this history in general only those events which may be useful first to ourselves and afterwards to posterity." (Ecclesiastical History, viii, 2; N&PNF. i, 323-324.)

Eusebius himself fraudulently "subscribed to the [Trinitarian]
Creed formed by the Council of Nicra, but making no secret, in the
letter which he wrote to his own Church, of the non-natural sense
in which he accepted it." (Cath. Encyc. v, 619.) As St. Jerome
says, "Eusebius is the most open champion of the Arian heresy,"
which denies the Trinity. (Jerome, Epist. 84, 2; N&PNF. vi, 176.)
Bishop Eusebius, as we shall see, was one of the most prolific
forgers and liars of his age of the Church, and a great romancer;
in his hair-raising histories of the holy Martyrs, he assures us
"that on some occasions the bodies of the martyrs who had been
devoured by wild beasts, upon the beasts being strangled, were
found alive in their stomachs, even after having been fully
digested"! (quoted, Gibbon, History, Ch. 37; Lardner, iv, p. 91;
Diegesis, p. 272). To such an extent had the "pious frauds of the
theologians been thus early systematized and raised to the dignity of a regular doctrine," that Bishop Eusebius, "in one of the most learned and elaborate works that antiquity has left us, the Thirty- second Chapter of the Twelfth Book of his Evangelical Preparation, bears for its title this scandalous proposition: 'How it may be Lawful and Fitting to use Falsehood as a Medicine, and for the Benefit of those who Want to be Deceived'" -- (quoting the Greek title; Gibbon, Vindication, p. 76).


http://www.skepticfiles.org/religion/forgeryd.htm
 
triadboy said:
I love this one.
To confute the opposer ... one argues as one pleases, saying one thing while one means another ... Origen, Eusebius [et al] write at great length ... Sometimes it is true, they are compelled to say not what they think but what is useful.
– St Jerome, c.380
With what part of
I stand in the thick of the fray, my life in constant danger: you who profess to teach me are a man of books. "Do not," you say, "attack unexpectedly or wound by a side-thrust. Strike straight at your opponent. You should be ashamed to resort to feints instead of force." As if it were not the perfection of fighting to menace one part and to strike another. Read, I beg of you, Demosthenes or Cicero, or (if you do not care for pleaders whose aim is to speak plausibly rather than truly) read Plato, Theophrastus, Xenophon, Aristotle, and the rest of those who draw their respective rills of wisdom from the Socratic fountain-head. Do they show any openness? Are they devoid of artifice? Is not every word they say filled with meaning? And does not this meaning always make for victory? Origen, Methodius, Eusebius, and Apollinaris(3) write at great length against Celsus and Porphyry.(4) Consider how subtle are the arguments, how insidious the engines with which they overthrow what the spirit of the devil has wrought. Sometimes, it is true, they are compelled to say not what they think but what is needful; and for this reason they employ against their opponents the assertions of the Gentiles themselves. I say nothing of the Latin authors, of Tertullian, Cyprian, Minutius, Victorinus, Lactantius, Hilary, lest I should appear not so much to be defending myself as to be assailing others.
do you disagree?
 

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