Here's a question:
One of the human chromosomes is IIRC a doubling up of (a? two?) chimp ones.
I believe you are referring to the human chromosome 2, which has been formed by a fusing of two chimpanzee chromosomes. Or, rather, the fusing of two chimpanzee/human common ancestor chromosomes. AFAIK, all other major differences in chromsomal arrangement are inversions.
Now, would that (on its own) have altered the expression or function of any genes?
It might. Any scale of chromosomal rearrangement can have an effect on gene expression. To explain, there is a common trend to consider a gene as a descrete unit. I.e., just the sequence which is transcribed. However, it is becoming clear that this is a huge oversimplification. Genes are often associated into gene groups which show conserved synteny (linkage) between often very divergent taxa. (As an example of this, see this recent article in Science which compared complete genome sequences of the sea anemone Nematostella vectensis with other non-cnidarianWP eumetazoans to attempt to approximate the ancient eumetazoanWP common ancestor genome.) Given the hundreds of millions of years of evolution between the different taxa, either chromosomal rearrangements are very uncommon, or the synteny of these gene groups is being selectively maintained. On a smaller scale, just looking at the hox complex shows that gene arrangement plays a role in gene function.
So I guess my answer is: maybe. Certainly a gene's physical location on a chromosome can play a role in gene regulation and expression. However, it is also certainly not universally true. And given that the chromosomal rearrangement you are speaking of maintains the intrachromosomal synteny, it is unlikely that it would have had any effect. Of course, that being said, gene expression and regulation is far from simple. Sometimes even vary distant genes at opposite ends of a chromosome can show strong Linkage DisequilibriumWP, and this is likely due to the physical characteristics of the chromosome.
I am guessing not, from the way that curent GM organisms are engineered.
As I said, is not even close to being universal. I would bet on there being no change whatsoever in gene expression.
Would that have been likely to to affect fertility between the two populations with the different chromosomes?
Regards
Jim
Yes it would, given that, because of the difference, chimpanzees and humans have different numbers of chromosomes. However, it might not be as simple as that. And an interesting question would be, did the hominin common ancestor have two chromosomes which were seperate, and have become fused in humans, or did the homonidWP common ancestor have a fused chromosome, which was subsequently split in chimpanzees? A little digging shows that, AFAIK, all homonids except humans have two seperate chromosomes, so it is most parsimoniously explained as being a single split in the homo lineage.
(Links for clarification)