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Ethical Relativism

Stimpson J. Cat said:
As is often the case, things come down to a question of definitions. I maintain that the apparent contradiction involved in moral relativism derives from sloppy definitions. What you have just said seems to support this. Either it is a moral statement, in which case it could possibly be a universal moral statement, or it is a system of morality, in which case it is not a moral statement at all, or it is neither. It cannot be both. Not if both concepts are defined in a coherent way.


Well, I'm sorry if I sound nit picky. :)

But I wasn't saying that number one's being a moral system allowed it to avoid moral systems, more just describing moral systems. At least at the proximate level, if you considered ethical relativism a system then I suppose we could get in trouble......



A universal moral statement would not be a trait of A. The fact that the statement is (or is not) universal is a trait of A.

Ok, but then you seem to be defining 'A' in two ways. One as a sort of meta-system, that carries within it other systems. And two, as a trait shared by all the systems within it. If we go by the former, then yes, the objection to relativism is a possible category error.

If we go by the second however, 'A' is clearly contradictory. As 'A' would be a trait shared by all systems, and hence 'A' would in effect saying that there is no 'A'.



If you define x to be both a moral statement, and a statement about the set of all moral statements, then yes, there is a contradiction. The contradiction is simply that a statement cannot be both a moral statement (which is a statement that is defined in the context of a single moral system), and a statement about the set of all moral systems (which is a statement that is defined in the context of the set of all moral systems).


Well, I was just kind of saying that I thought you defined 'x' in two ways. At one part, as a moral system within 'A', at another part, as a universal trait.

My criticism was that if we separated the two definitions, so as to be more clear, then yes clearly 'x' as trait, is merely a trait of 'A'. Hence 'x' if it says there is no universal moral trait (which is what 'x' is) posits a contradiction.

To put it another way, any statement which is meaningful outside of the framework of a moral system, is not a moral statement. But any statement about the set of all moral systems, cannot possibly be meaningful without being taken in the context of the set of all moral systems, which is outside of any single moral system. These two types of statements are each only meaningful in different contexts. A single statement can therefore not be of both types.


I suppose I don't see the distinction. Basically, I think every statement of that type is within the context of a moral system. Hence subject to the rules and limitations therief.



I don't follow you. I agree that the statement "All moral systems within set A are true" is definitely false, but so what? Sets are abstract. I have no idea what it would even mean to say that A is an actual existing thing. Sets are not actual existing things.

That said, the fact that different moral systems contradict each other does not in any way render set A logically inconsistent.


To me it makes a good point, as morality imo, is something that does exist. And it is a phenomenon to be explained.

The fact that 'A' then falls into contradictions then provides a bad explanation.


To see why I think morals exist, just try violating one of them. You will in all likelyhood get some sort of very negative reaction, proving imo, that these norms do exist, and that their existence requires an explanation.

The relativist system, imo, provides a poor explanation for this. Basically because it falls into incoherence and posits that all moral systems, are true.

Thus deontological morals must be true, utilitarianism must be true, ethical egoism must be true. But all these things cannot be true, as they contradict eachother. Hence ethical relativism imo, cannot be true.


I should note here I am not arguing from absolutism btw, but more of an objective situationalism. This means that we can measure some practices as more "moral" or "ethical" then others, at least generally for a person or group, that finding these practices can be done with science/reason and that whatever is right can change with the situation.

I think morals are in a sense subjective, and relative. Just as pain is in a sense, subjective, just as perception is in a sense relative. However I still think that there is also an objective element here, just like all the above categories. We understand for example, that pain is not a construct and that there is a physiology to it. That there are some practices clearly more painful then others, nobody I know likes to be stabbed.

And we understand for example that though perceptions vary, there is likewise a physiology to it. And that we clearly see better under some conditions then others. And that we can measure perception via eye charts, as well as measure objects of our perception.

Nobody would argue then that the existence of pain or perception is a mere belief, or social construct, something invented just because they vary.


This applies to morals as well imo, as the general biology of humans, and the set nature of our personalities allows us to discover general psychological moral rules, or general/intrinsic values. And thus which actions are most conductive to these rules and values.



Game theory suggests that morals evolved in social animals, due to benefits inheret in reciprocal altruism and selection by groups, i.e. due to the fact that groups punish cheaters and individuals retaliate, so since the best way to practice something is to really believe, we have evolved to do so. Hence morals have just as much usefullness as any other emotion which evolved in us for practical purposes. This implies imo, that morals are more emotional then cognitive. As emotions are sincere and last, whereas beliefs have to be redicoscovered and are easily discarded. More evidence from this comes from sociopaths imo, who can often times pass intelligence and logic tests just as well as anyone else, but are simply incapable of answering simple moral dillemmas.


Thus morals I believe are not mere beliefs or inventions, but represent intrinsic emotional tendencies. And since human nature is generally the same, and thus human societies, I think we have developed the same moral "rules" in general, from society to society, with certain variations present due to environmental factors. Moral systems are thus "adaptations" imo, and are somewhat tailored to different environments. But even still, I believe there are certain rules stemming from our common biology, just as there are for what make people happy or angry.
 
Martin said:
No sh!t, Sherlock.

*chuckles* Yeah guess I mistyped that. Sorry for the confusion.

I meant "Moral vegans won't eat from a bowel where meat has been served from."

This is opposed to health vegans, who will often times just remove the meat.
 
DialecticMaterialist said:
I meant "Moral vegans won't eat from a bowel where meat has been served from."
Oh. And here I thought you meant "Moral vegans won't eat from a bowl where meat has been served from". My mistake :D
 
DM,

As is often the case, things come down to a question of definitions. I maintain that the apparent contradiction involved in moral relativism derives from sloppy definitions. What you have just said seems to support this. Either it is a moral statement, in which case it could possibly be a universal moral statement, or it is a system of morality, in which case it is not a moral statement at all, or it is neither. It cannot be both. Not if both concepts are defined in a coherent way.
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Well, I'm sorry if I sound nit picky.

Go right ahead. The Devil's in the details.

But I wasn't saying that number one's being a moral system allowed it to avoid moral systems, more just describing moral systems. At least at the proximate level, if you considered ethical relativism a system then I suppose we could get in trouble......

I think that is exactly the key point. If you try to claim that ethical relativism is, itself, a moral system, then you are going to run into contradictions. It is not a moral system. It is a claim about the set of all moral systems.

A universal moral statement would not be a trait of A. The fact that the statement is (or is not) universal is a trait of A.
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Ok, but then you seem to be defining 'A' in two ways. One as a sort of meta-system, that carries within it other systems. And two, as a trait shared by all the systems within it. If we go by the former, then yes, the objection to relativism is a possible category error.

Not exactly. I am defining A as a sort of meta-system, as you say. I am not defining A to be a trait shared by all the systems within it. The fact that a specific trait is (or is not) common to all systems within A, is a trait of A.

Well, I was just kind of saying that I thought you defined 'x' in two ways. At one part, as a moral system within 'A', at another part, as a universal trait.

My criticism was that if we separated the two definitions, so as to be more clear, then yes clearly 'x' as trait, is merely a trait of 'A'. Hence 'x' if it says there is no universal moral trait (which is what 'x' is) posits a contradiction.

It was never my intention to define x to be a moral system. My point is essentially that x cannot be both a moral statement and a train of A (meaning a statement about all moral systems).

It also cannot be both a moral system, and a statement about all moral systems. Both are category errors.

To put it another way, any statement which is meaningful outside of the framework of a moral system, is not a moral statement. But any statement about the set of all moral systems, cannot possibly be meaningful without being taken in the context of the set of all moral systems, which is outside of any single moral system. These two types of statements are each only meaningful in different contexts. A single statement can therefore not be of both types.
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I suppose I don't see the distinction. Basically, I think every statement of that type is within the context of a moral system. Hence subject to the rules and limitations therief.

Of what type? Look at it another way. A moral statement essentially takes the form "x is / is not moral". The statement that there are no such statements which are true for all moral systems, is simply not such a statement.

In other words, the statement that there are no universal moral statements is not a statement of what is or is not moral. It is not a moral statement. The confusion comes from the fact that while it is not a moral statement, it is a statement about morality. But this does not produce a contradiction, because it does not claim that there are no universal statements about morality.

I don't follow you. I agree that the statement "All moral systems within set A are true" is definitely false, but so what? Sets are abstract. I have no idea what it would even mean to say that A is an actual existing thing. Sets are not actual existing things.

That said, the fact that different moral systems contradict each other does not in any way render set A logically inconsistent.
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To me it makes a good point, as morality imo, is something that does exist. And it is a phenomenon to be explained.

The fact that 'A' then falls into contradictions then provides a bad explanation.

In what sense does it fall into contradictions? The fact that the elements of the set cannot all contain statements which are all true, has no relevance to the logical consistency of the set.

Look at it this way. A moral system is a set of moral statements. In order for that moral system to be reasonable, those statements must not contradict each other. Even if they do, though, the set, which is simply a set of statements, is still perfectly self-consistent. It just is not the case that all of the statements which are elements of that set are true statements. There is no reason a set cannot include as elements statements which are false.

And the set of all moral systems is not even a set of statements. It is a set of sets.

To see why I think morals exist, just try violating one of them. You will in all likelyhood get some sort of very negative reaction, proving imo, that these norms do exist, and that their existence requires an explanation.

There is no question that moral norms exist. The questions are "where do they come from?", and "are they universal?". The answer to the second question appears to be "no".

The relativist system, imo, provides a poor explanation for this. Basically because it falls into incoherence and posits that all moral systems, are true.

Not at all. What it does is state that moral systems, much like opinions, are neither true nor false.

Thus deontological morals must be true, utilitarianism must be true, ethical egoism must be true. But all these things cannot be true, as they contradict eachother. Hence ethical relativism imo, cannot be true.

If ethical relativism implied that all moral systems were true, you would be correct. But it does not. It implies only there are no moral statements which are true in all moral systems.

I should note here I am not arguing from absolutism btw, but more of an objective situationalism. This means that we can measure some practices as more "moral" or "ethical" then others, at least generally for a person or group, that finding these practices can be done with science/reason and that whatever is right can change with the situation.

This does not in any way contradict moral relativism.

I think morals are in a sense subjective, and relative. Just as pain is in a sense, subjective, just as perception is in a sense relative. However I still think that there is also an objective element here, just like all the above categories. We understand for example, that pain is not a construct and that there is a physiology to it. That there are some practices clearly more painful then others, nobody I know likes to be stabbed.

Of course there is an objective element. The objective element lies in the reasons why people and societies develop moral systems, and how they go about doing so.

This applies to morals as well imo, as the general biology of humans, and the set nature of our personalities allows us to discover general psychological moral rules, or general/intrinsic values. And thus which actions are most conductive to these rules and values.

Once again, I agree. I don't think this contradicts moral relativism at all.

Thus morals I believe are not mere beliefs or inventions, but represent intrinsic emotional tendencies. And since human nature is generally the same, and thus human societies, I think we have developed the same moral "rules" in general, from society to society, with certain variations present due to environmental factors. Moral systems are thus "adaptations" imo, and are somewhat tailored to different environments. But even still, I believe there are certain rules stemming from our common biology, just as there are for what make people happy or angry.

I think the same thing could be said for all so-called "beliefs and inventions". Nobody is claiming that moral systems are random, or invented on a whim. There most definitely are trends and similarities which are indicative of some underlying mechanism. That does not in any way contradict moral relativism.


Dr. Stupid
 
Do you guys contend that definitions and set theory will provide real insight to the question of ethical/moral realtivism?

I'd say you're just evading the question. ;)


Either that or you are writing the book on the mathematics of ethics & morals?
 
Sorry

Yahweh said:
I would support Ethical Relativism, it seems reasonable that non-uniform cultural backgrounds and beliefs would warrant sound reasoning to assume many moral judgements cannot be applied universally across the whole of humanity.

However, many people make an unwise error in judgement, they will use the concept of Ethical Relativism and take it to its unrealistic extremes. This results in a form of "moral anarchy" in that it would be very easy to say any action immoral in one culture such as spousal abuse may be condoned and accepted in another culture. If anyone actually accepted those extremes as an accurate description of what Ethical Relativism really means, it seems remarkable you could travel to another region without finding yourself killed at all...

I'm sorry, some cultures are ethically superior to others. Our's in the US, where we don't stone to death women for having sex out of wedlock is superior to, say, the Saudi's where they do.
 
It's my current thinking that the highest universal code of ethics we have is the good ol Golden Rule.

Surely that's a moral rule that all societies can aspire to.


And just because the majority of members of that society do not practice that (as in historical slavery, or the holocaust), it doesn't make their evil deeds automatically good.

Just as might doesn't make right, and the majority doesn't make truth, neither does the common practice of society at large automatically equal moral action.
 
Stimpson J. Cat said:
I think that is exactly the key point. If you try to claim that ethical relativism is, itself, a moral system, then you are going to run into contradictions. It is not a moral system. It is a claim about the set of all moral systems.


I disagree, I think it is a moral system in itself. Claims about moral systems I believe are not separate from but laden with moral theories, which derive in part from moral systems.



Not exactly. I am defining A as a sort of meta-system, as you say. I am not defining A to be a trait shared by all the systems within it. The fact that a specific trait is (or is not) common to all systems within A, is a trait of A.


Yes 'A' would in that sense be universal, but hardly enough to describe ethical relativism, imo, which is a statement.


It was never my intention to define x to be a moral system. My point is essentially that x cannot be both a moral statement and a train of A (meaning a statement about all moral systems).

Well then, I might agree. But in that context I think 'x' is obviously a train of 'A'.

It also cannot be both a moral system, and a statement about all moral systems. Both are category errors.


Perhaps not, but it can be part of a moral system as well as a statement about all moral systems, as I believe moral systems make statements about eachother. Hence it is not a categorical error, as the two are not mutually exlcusive.



Of what type? Look at it another way. A moral statement essentially takes the form "x is / is not moral". The statement that there are no such statements which are true for all moral systems, is simply not such a statement.


I would agree with that. IMO, that would be much more clear the the original statement, which is, imo ambiguous.

As the phrase "There are no universally correct moral statements" can mean "You cannot say something is moral for all systems"

or it can mean:

"You cannot say something correct about any moral system."

Or perhaps even:

"All moral systems are fictions/false".

The first would be something I can agree with, though imo, it would be compatible with situationalist and objectivist morality, not just relativist.

In other words, the statement that there are no universal moral statements is not a statement of what is or is not moral. It is not a moral statement. The confusion comes from the fact that while it is not a moral statement, it is a statement about morality. But this does not produce a contradiction, because it does not claim that there are no universal statements about morality.


I would agree with that. Though one can posit of course implicit contradictions. Thing like it implies "All morals are equally good or bad", which would be a universal statement regarding morality, or "all morals are constructs" which would be an extrinsic contradiction. I think relativist systems often commit to these.

In which case, the matter would switch from one of pure logic to one of evidence.



In what sense does it fall into contradictions? The fact that the elements of the set cannot all contain statements which are all true, has no relevance to the logical consistency of the set.


In does in the sense that so many people adhere to different moral systems, and relativism would posit they were all equally true.

Look at it this way. A moral system is a set of moral statements. In order for that moral system to be reasonable, those statements must not contradict each other. Even if they do, though, the set, which is simply a set of statements, is still perfectly self-consistent. It just is not the case that all of the statements which are elements of that set are true statements. There is no reason a set cannot include as elements statements which are false.


But that would make the system I believe, in some way false.

Also, if a system does have different elements which contradict eachother, not just oppose or interfere with but contradict, the system is imo, incoherent.

Last, I don't think moral systems can be reduced to mere moral statements. I think only a descriptive level they can, not necessarily at a prescriptive.

And the set of all moral systems is not even a set of statements. It is a set of sets.


See I disagree. I don't think ethical relativism necessarily contains all systems, it cannot because they contradict. That would not be ethical relativism but the subject of ethics itself.


IMO then, ethical relativism is itself merely a system, one that tries to posit all others are equally true and hence contradicts itself.

The statement then, "there are no correct moral statements" would itself be a meta-statement, but it would not be enough to establish ethical relativism. As an ethical relativist is not saying that in some abstract world, there are no universally correct moral statements, but that nobody can say what's true or false, or better or worse concerning morality.



There is no question that moral norms exist. The questions are "where do they come from?", and "are they universal?". The answer to the second question appears to be "no".


Well I would agree, but I do think we can derive universally ethical principles. And even if moral norms are not strictly universal to all agents, that doesn't mean there aren't some universal (or damn near universal) to humanity.



Not at all. What it does is state that moral systems, much like opinions, are neither true nor false.


I don't see how that can be coherent.

At this point, the relativist wouldn't just be making what I will call the weak claim regarding universal norms, but now a strong claim regarding universal norms, a sort of universal.

It is now trying to leap from the claim "No norms hold true for all systems" to "there is no moral claim that is true or false for all systems".

The first was very reasonable imo, the second is somewhat harder to support.

Take for example the statement "Green plants,


My problem with the second statement is it relies on ambiguity and posits in a sense a universal.

On the one hand, it can simply mean that moral claims, to be properly evaluated need an appropriate context, and that the truths concerning specific norms can vary with the situation.


On the other hand, it can mean that any prescriptive or descriptive statements regarding moral norms can never be true or false. In other words it can mean something like "x is neither moral nor immoral" which would be universal in scope.

This is very incoherent imo, because it first off contradicts the original premise concerning all moral systems, but positing a sort of norm. Now I imagine one may object saying "No it is describing norms, not positing an actual norm" but I think it is positing a norm implicitly, as a norm merely means "x is moral" or "x is immoral" and the statement is saying "x is both" advocating both in a sense, making it in that sense a norm.


Secondly, as a descriptive statement it suffers as well. We already admit moral norms exist, so in what sense can they be neither true nor false?

In a weak sense it can mean they vary, or to make sense you need a context.

For example "Murder is wrong". Strictly speaking, that is neither true nor false, as there is no context.

But lets go into "Moral is wrong for all possible creatures." That is clearly false.

Or even more specific "Murder is wrong for almost all humans". That is true.

Hence we can make true and false assertions depending on context.

In regards to the original statement "Murder is wrong" the context is assumed, usually "for humans." Just like the statement "Vegitables are healthy". That's true.

Now it's also true that vegitables are not healthy for tigers. But that was presumed to be outside of what was meant, hence why we can say the original assertion is true.

All statements about existing entities have to, at some level, be true or false in a given context.

This is where the strong version of the "morals cannot be true or false" comes in. It is saying these claims are not just lacking truth/falsehood due to context, but just in general. It is at the same time saying these norms exist. What sense can the claim make then?

How can norms exist, as real actual things, yet statements concerning these actual norms have no truth value?

That would be like saying, health exists, but statements concerning health have no truth value.

If ethical relativism implied that all moral systems were true, you would be correct. But it does not. It implies only there are no moral statements which are true in all moral systems.


No, it is not merely limited to such modest proposals.

Ethical relativism, as you said above says that moral statements cannot be true or false. And ethical relativism, were it really a set of sets, and not simply a set, would have to include all other moral systems. That would mean, if ethical relativism were true, and it existed, as did all its parts, all the parts would be "true" as well. This of course, make a system, or even a meta-ethical system full of contradictions. Unless the relativist were willing to declare all the systems within false, or only a select true.

The relativist could not at this point declare a statement about any specific norms, nor limit itself to describing their nature, as that would then be the domain of a system (set) not the meta-system.

The problem is that while saying "No Norm holds true for all systems" may be correct, it is not enough to refute those systems, as all those systems bring with them both descriptive and prescriptive elements, not just prescriptive elements.



Of course there is an objective element. The objective element lies in the reasons why people and societies develop moral systems, and how they go about doing so.

or why moral tendencies evolved among human beings.



Once again, I agree. I don't think this contradicts moral relativism at all.

I'm glad we agree. :)

I can see what you're saying here. And with that I would agree. Moral norms cannot be said to be true or false based on purely logical or cognitive premises. It's not like math or physics in that it is often agent dependent in whether its true or false (but given we specify the agent, it can be true or false).

And moral norms do vary. What's true then according to one system (with specific norms) may not be true for another.


The problem is that such a broad meaning of relativism isn't what most people mean by it. What most people mean is that moral claims are equal and inventions. That you cannot say anything is good nor bad, right nor wrong. That's why postmodernists for example don't think that a culture which liberates women is any better then one that enslaves them.



I think the same thing could be said for all so-called "beliefs and inventions". Nobody is claiming that moral systems are random, or invented on a whim. There most definitely are trends and similarities which are indicative of some underlying mechanism. That does not in any way contradict moral relativism.



Again, I could very much agree with such a relativism.


The problem is most self styled relativists, including postmodernists and extreme advocates of multiculturalism or some sort of nihilism won't.

They use the word in the stronger sense of the term, and such a sense if what I come to associate with relativism. Basically right and wrong is what you decide is right or wrong, and none are better or worse. None are true or false even when you specify the agent in question.

This was alluded to even by you when you said morals are "like opinions neither true nor false".

This can like I said mean two different things. The first, something very agreeable, the second, something absurd.

Thing is though even opinions must be true or false when agency and context are specified.

For example "Chocolate is good". Not true or false strictly. But "Chocolate tastes good to most people", that can be true.

But most relativists don't recognize this, and believe when they say "Ethics are relative" that there can be no right or wrong in ethics. Much of this depends, ironically enough, on what relativist you talk to. I imagine you will get different definitions of ethical relativism from each.


IMO though strong relativism is obviously wrong as it depends on two premises: moral norms/practices are abritrarily made by individuals, or moral norms/practices are arbitrarily invented by cultures. And that there is no context then to judge actions as right or wrong. Cultural practices as good or bad. Or character as better or worse.

In other words they equate morality with practices concerning morality, and beliefs concerning it. This of course removes objectivity altogether, as there is no purely cogntive basis for morality. In other words, what is considered moral or ethical is moral or ethical.


Some examples of this kind of relativism:


Ethical relativism is the theory that holds that morality is relative to the norms of one's culture. That is, whether an action is right or wrong depends on the moral norms of the society in which it is practiced. The same action may be morally right in one society but be morally wrong in another. For the ethical relativist, there are no universal moral standards -- standards that can be universally applied to all peoples at all times. The only moral standards against which a society's practices can be judged are its own. If ethical relativism is correct, there can be no common framework for resolving moral disputes or for reaching agreement on ethical matters among members of different societies.


http://www.scu.edu/ethics/practicing/decision/ethicalrelativism.html

Normative (ethical) Relativism

The normative relativist goes BEYOND any sociological facts.

(a) Normative Claim: "What is considered right in Society x at time t IS right for that Society."

(b) Theoretical (metaethical) Claim: Morality Itself is Relative.

Note that ethical relativism does not logically follow from any truths uncovered by descriptive relativism. Note also that the ethical relativist has a hard time explaining how radical moral change can occur within a certain society (as with slavery or women's suffrage in the United States).


http://caae.phil.cmu.edu/Cavalier/80130/part2/sect6.html


Moral relativism is the viewpoint that moral standards are not absolute, but instead emerge from social customs and other sources. The philosophical stance can be traced back at least as far as the Greek scholar Protagoras , who stated that "Man is the measure of all things;" a modern interpretation of this statement might be that things exist only in the context of the people who observe them.

Moral relativism stands in contrast to moral absolutism, which sees morals as fixed by an absolute human nature (John Rawls), or external sources such as deities (many religions) or the universe itself (as in Objectivism ). Those who believe in moral absolutes often are highly critical of moral relativism; some have been known to equate it with outright immorality or amorality.


(snip)


One consequence of this viewpoint, also known as cultural relativism, is the principle that any judgment of society as a whole is invalid: individuals are judged against the standards of their society; societies themselves have no larger context in which judgement is even meaningful. This is a source of conflict between moral relativists and moral absolutists, since a moral absolutist would argue that society as a whole can be judged for its acceptance of "immoral" practices, such as slavery. Such judgments are inconsistent with relativism, although in practice relativists often make such judgments anyway (for example, a relativist is unlikely to defend slave-owners on relativistic principles).


http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cultural_relativism

My own viewpoint, given those above descriptions would neither be moral relativism, nor moral absolutism. This is because I think that while morals depend on character (thus making them vary and not absolute), the character of human beings are similiar enough for us to make certain "universal i.e. very general" norms by which to declare actions right or wrong. Secondly, I think that even if morals are determined by character, and character varies, it is still apropriate to judge one person or culture by standards that one does not share. For example, I can still condemn a sociopath for murdering someone, even if for him murdering is by no means unethical or immoral. Third, I think that even if better or worse is relative (agent dependent), that one can always see a better or worse for that person. This may of course vary with what agents we talk about, hence why it is in a sense relative. Fourth, I think at least one universal claim can be made and that is, to do what serves the most norms for any given agent. And last, I think what is moral or immoral, ethical or unethical depends on our emotional mechanisms, not cogntive. So we cannot in that sense "decide" something is moral, because it is not our decision. It is an emotional matter, that like other such matters, is determined by our character (genes and environment).
 
Silicon said:
It's my current thinking that the highest universal code of ethics we have is the good ol Golden Rule.

Surely that's a moral rule that all societies can aspire to.


And just because the majority of members of that society do not practice that (as in historical slavery, or the holocaust), it doesn't make their evil deeds automatically good.

Just as might doesn't make right, and the majority doesn't make truth, neither does the common practice of society at large automatically equal moral action.

The problem with that principle is that not everyone is best off or even wants to be treated like you.

My grandmother would for example blow her casket if I treated her like I want to be treated.

"Yo Grandma how's it going?"

And letting a little kid own a gun, just because you wish to, would be irresponsible.


Of course defenders will qualify the claim by saying "It means to treat them how you'd want to be treated, if you were them."

That makes the rule paticular, not universal, and makes it so that we are no longer treating people as we'd want to be treated, but as they want to be treated.

And even then we run into problems, as some people want some pretty sick and harmful things.

First off, I might not know enough about a person to know what they want.

Second, not all wants are good. Some man for example might want to rob me, and some person might want me to become their slave. Another may wish someone just let him out of jail, for the murder he committed.

In which case opponents will argue that "They aren't following the Golden Rule".

Maybe not, but then again that makes the Golden Rule dependent upon whether or not others follow it. And also somewhat a matter that needs to be decided over, i.e. is it more in line with the Golden Rule to give in? Or are they violating the rule themselves too much to have their demands met?


IMO, all the Golden Rule really should mean is "Have some empathy/consideration for other's needs". This would not be so much the universal ethical norm so much as a helpful rule/norm, that must be weighed against other rules and norms all the time.

This is why for example, I will help an old lady carry her groceries, but I wont help some thief or group of thieves steal them from her.

Another problem is when we come to numbers. Lets say I can save 10 poor people, or 1 rich person. The Golden Rule by itself would be no help here.
 
I didn't mean to suggest that the Golden rule is the only moral code that one can use, or that it alone is sufficient for moral behavior in all instances.

What I meant was, I think that all other moral behavior comes from it, and it is a standard by which one can fend off the demons of total moral relativism.



No society will be a purely moral society. No set of rules or laws will ever codify a purely moral framework with all the answers. I didn't say it ever did, although you attack my assertion about the golden rule as if I did.

What I do assert, and continue to assert, is that complete moral reletivism can not exist, because clearly majority rule doesn't automatically equal moral behavior. Calling the societal norm "moral" doesn't make slavery, ethnic cleansing, oppression, etc actually moral. If it DID, there would never be any change to socital norms.

But darn it, those oppressed, and those people moved by sympathy for those oppressed (invoking the golden rule here), keep changing the norm by ballot or by force when it runs up against a higher moral authority than merely majority norm.

Which is how, for instance, we stand on the precipice of the possibility that gays may be able to marry in America. Surely gays, being less than 1/10th of the population (probably closer to 4%), aren't the society norm, and hold very little power. And yet, the nation is divided pretty equally about this issue.

Why? Because over the past 40 or so years, gay rights has tested the moral code of people opposed to it. Society at large has come around dramatically in the last 10 years, and now even our Republican Vice President is proud of his lesbian daugher.

Why do morals change? Because they conflict with higher ones. And the highest one of all is human equality. We may never achieve it totally. We may never have a full moral code that answers the question "what IS equality and how do we achieve it always"?

But the very fact that the concept of equality exists, and it stands as the measuring stick against which we gauge all other moral codes, tells me that there is no such thing as completly reletive morality.
 
Silicon said:
It's my current thinking that the highest universal code of ethics we have is the good ol Golden Rule.

Surely that's a moral rule that all societies can aspire to.


And just because the majority of members of that society do not practice that (as in historical slavery, or the holocaust), it doesn't make their evil deeds automatically good.

Just as might doesn't make right, and the majority doesn't make truth, neither does the common practice of society at large automatically equal moral action.

I disagree - I think the Wiccan Rede (As long as it harms no one, do what you will) is the highest 'universal code' if such a beast exists.

The Golden Rule is too proactive for my tastes. (Do onto others what you would have others do onto you.)

What if the person 'doing onto' me is a Christian, who loves to hear 'the word of God'? That might not be what I (an Atheist) enjoys.

What if such a person is a Masochist?
 
Dang you DialecticMaterialist!! You got there first, and said it better!

Curses!!
 
I would call that wiccan rede a rewording of the same concept as "do unto others".

Yours convieniently omits any definition of the word "harm". (What if a masochist desires harm, are you harming him by depriving him of harm? Is punishment or incarceration harm? etc)

So the wiccan rede falls into the same traps you set for the golden rule. The trap of incompleteness.

Since any interaction with other humans is "doing unto" them, and any interaction can cause possible harm, I think they both fall into the exact same trap, which is merely a trap of the limited nature of an 11-word code to solve all the moral dilemmas in this world. Obviously that doesn't work, and so our societies' laws tend to be wordier than that.

Attacking the GR or the WR for incompleteness is beside the point. I'm arguing that they are a moral compass that provides a direction irrespective of strict reletivism, no matter what the "cultural norm".

To bring my compass analogy further, they aren't a full map of all moral territory, they are merely a directional marker of which direction to keep moving in.


Can we then both agree that a higher moral DIRECTION exists than purely relativism?

If so, have I proven my point, that there is no absolute relativism ?
 
Hammegk,

Do you guys contend that definitions and set theory will provide real insight to the question of ethical/moral realtivism?

I'd say you're just evading the question.

No, but I would say that clear definitions and formal logic (of which set theory is a part) provide an unambiguous framework from which the problem can be discussed. Otherwise we may just end up endlessly arguing over semantics.


DM,

I think that is exactly the key point. If you try to claim that ethical relativism is, itself, a moral system, then you are going to run into contradictions. It is not a moral system. It is a claim about the set of all moral systems.
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I disagree, I think it is a moral system in itself. Claims about moral systems I believe are not separate from but laden with moral theories, which derive in part from moral systems.

Once again, I think this is a question of how we define our terms. If we define a moral system to be a set of moral statements, and define a moral statement to be any statement of the form "x is / is not moral", then the statement "There are no universally true moral statements" is neither a moral statement nor a moral system. If we do not define moral systems and moral statements that way, then you need to stipulate exactly how you do define "moral statement", and what constitutes a "universal moral statement" before you can claim that the above statement is an accurate description of moral relativism.

I would claim that the sentence above is an accurate description of moral relativism given the definitions I have provided. I cannot make any claims about the accuracy of the statement using other definitions without knowing those definitions, nor can I make any judgement as to whether it is self-contradictory or not.

It also cannot be both a moral system, and a statement about all moral systems. Both are category errors.
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Perhaps not, but it can be part of a moral system as well as a statement about all moral systems, as I believe moral systems make statements about eachother. Hence it is not a categorical error, as the two are not mutually exlcusive.

Again, that depends on how you define a moral statement. Obviously if you use a definition of "moral statement" such that "There are no universally true moral statements" itself qualifies as a moral statement, then it is self-contradictory. But under such a definition of "moral statement", that statement is also no longer an accurate description of moral relativism.

Of what type? Look at it another way. A moral statement essentially takes the form "x is / is not moral". The statement that there are no such statements which are true for all moral systems, is simply not such a statement.
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I would agree with that. IMO, that would be much more clear the the original statement, which is, imo ambiguous.

As the phrase "There are no universally correct moral statements" can mean "You cannot say something is moral for all systems"

or it can mean:

"You cannot say something correct about any moral system."

Or perhaps even:

"All moral systems are fictions/false".

The first would be something I can agree with, though imo, it would be compatible with situationalist and objectivist morality, not just relativist.

Exactly. The statement can mean many different things, depending on your definitions. That means that before you can use that statement as a characterization of moral relativism, and certainly before you can use it to try to show that relativism is self-contradictory, you must determine which meaning is the one actually meant by the people who claim to be moral relativist.

A common tactic used by philosophers to discredit positions they don't like, is to characterize the position with some statement which people who hold that position would agree with, given one set of definitions, and then construct a disproof of the position by applying different definitions to the statement. We've seen that tactic used here by dualists and idealists many times to try to discredit materialism. Ever notice how they always start off with something like "materialism claims that..."?

In other words, the statement that there are no universal moral statements is not a statement of what is or is not moral. It is not a moral statement. The confusion comes from the fact that while it is not a moral statement, it is a statement about morality. But this does not produce a contradiction, because it does not claim that there are no universal statements about morality.
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I would agree with that. Though one can posit of course implicit contradictions. Thing like it implies "All morals are equally good or bad", which would be a universal statement regarding morality, or "all morals are constructs" which would be an extrinsic contradiction. I think relativist systems often commit to these.

I am sure some do. Others do not. I consider myself a moral relativist, but I take the approach that morality is something which can be understood by studying human nature. There are no universally true moral statements, but all systems of morality have common characteristics, because they are all created by groups of humans based on human needs which are common to us all.

In what sense does it fall into contradictions? The fact that the elements of the set cannot all contain statements which are all true, has no relevance to the logical consistency of the set.
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In does in the sense that so many people adhere to different moral systems, and relativism would posit they were all equally true.

You will certainly get no argument from me that the claim that all moral systems are equally true, is self-contradictory. That is only one type of moral relativism, though.

Look at it this way. A moral system is a set of moral statements. In order for that moral system to be reasonable, those statements must not contradict each other. Even if they do, though, the set, which is simply a set of statements, is still perfectly self-consistent. It just is not the case that all of the statements which are elements of that set are true statements. There is no reason a set cannot include as elements statements which are false.
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But that would make the system I believe, in some way false.

Well... yeah. So?

Also, if a system does have different elements which contradict eachother, not just oppose or interfere with but contradict, the system is imo, incoherent.

Absolutely. Many systems of morality are incoherent. In fact, I would go so far as to say that most of them are.

Last, I don't think moral systems can be reduced to mere moral statements. I think only a descriptive level they can, not necessarily at a prescriptive.

Sure. That definition is really just for purposes of defining what is meant by a "universal moral statement" in the original statement. Note that the term "moral system" is not present in the statement, and therefore does not really need to be defined at all. I introduced the term simply to clarify my definition of "universal moral statement". For example, we could define a moral system as consisting of both moral statements, and statements about morality. In this case, the statement could be part of a moral system, but it is still not a universal moral statement, because it is not a moral statement at all.

And the set of all moral systems is not even a set of statements. It is a set of sets.
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See I disagree. I don't think ethical relativism necessarily contains all systems, it cannot because they contradict. That would not be ethical relativism but the subject of ethics itself.

It does not contain all systems. It is a statement about all systems.

IMO then, ethical relativism is itself merely a system, one that tries to posit all others are equally true and hence contradicts itself.

That version of ethical relativism does contradict itself.

There is no question that moral norms exist. The questions are "where do they come from?", and "are they universal?". The answer to the second question appears to be "no".
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Well I would agree, but I do think we can derive universally ethical principles. And even if moral norms are not strictly universal to all agents, that doesn't mean there aren't some universal (or damn near universal) to humanity.

I agree. I do not think that ethical relativism contradicts this. At least, not all versions of it do. Certainly the version I hold does not.

Not at all. What it does is state that moral systems, much like opinions, are neither true nor false.
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I don't see how that can be coherent.

At this point, the relativist wouldn't just be making what I will call the weak claim regarding universal norms, but now a strong claim regarding universal norms, a sort of universal.

It is now trying to leap from the claim "No norms hold true for all systems" to "there is no moral claim that is true or false for all systems".

What I mean is that they are not true or false in any kind of absolute way. They are rather like the statement "parallel lines never intersect". Within one mathematical framework that statement may be true. Within a different mathematical framework it may be false. Taken outside of any mathematical framework, it is neither true nor false.

The problem is that such a broad meaning of relativism isn't what most people mean by it. What most people mean is that moral claims are equal and inventions. That you cannot say anything is good nor bad, right nor wrong. That's why postmodernists for example don't think that a culture which liberates women is any better then one that enslaves them.

Well, I can't speak for all relativists, or what they mean by it. I am certainly no post-modernist, as I am sure you have guessed :D. I consider myself a relativist because I think that there are no absolute moral values. In any event, my point in engaging in this discussion is certainly not to defend all forms of relativism, or even what "most" people mean by it. My point was simply that the argument which was used to attack relativism in Upchurch's post was not a valid one. Many versions of relativism are self-contradictory, but those contradictions are not implied by the statement "there are no universally true moral statements".


Dr. Stupid
 
Sometimes I wish I was as smart and articulate as Dr. Stupid.



I got what you wrote. I read it and understood it.


Why is it that your thoughts on the screen are clearer and easier to sort out than the thoughts in my head?


Stimpson J. Cat, are you a teacher at a university that I could attend? If so, that must be one great class.
 

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