Which simply indicates that, as we know, the expression had several meanings or connotations. All I am arguing is that the meaning I refer to exists in Tacitus' writings, and I have cited and commented on it. This doesn't exclude his use of the word in other ways in other contexts.Yet we were talking about the use of "res publica" about those same Barbarians.
Cicero, moreover, implies such a usage in Book III of De Re Publica.
In such circumstances neither city can be called a commonwealth.Can we call the state of Agrigentum a Commonwealth, where all men are oppressed by the cruelty of a single tyrant?—where there is no universal bond of right, nor social consent and fellowship, which should belong to every people, properly so named. It is the same in Syracuse,—... while Dionysus its tyrant reigned there, nothing of all its wealth belonged to the people, and the people were nothing better than the slaves of an impious despot. Thus wherever I behold a tyrant, I know that the social constitution must be, not merely vicious and corrupt, as I stated yesterday, but in strict truth, no social constitution at all.