MikeAparicio
Unregistered
- Joined
- Jan 28, 2013
- Messages
- 304
Here the questions:
Are ALL clinical trials, clinical studies and experiment results invariably published?
Who warrants unfavorable results are published as well?
Is the Pharma industry willing to admit mistakes and testing errors as well as biased tests and analysis?
Is it convenient for Pharma industries to publish favorable results to inexpensive non pharmaceutical treatment tests?
Why Pharma consistently diminishes testimonial proof?
Can testimonial proof be subject to formal scientific analysis and not only to rejection?
An example: Pfizer was conducting trials for Sildenafil as a potential blood pressure regulator. Subjects under trial started reporting a totally different outcome, TOTALLY OUT OF THE TRIAL SCOPE.
"I am having strong erections" they started saying.
Those were testimonies. The trials were NOT measuring erection rates at all!
Did or did it not Viagra's discovery come out of seriously considering the testimonial evidence?
Did such testimonials led to clinical trials on the precise ED subject?
But going farther:
Would the trials have "denied" sildenafil effects on erectile disfunction, could this convince the witnessing subjects that "after all sildenafil was not working and their erections were a "placebo" effect"?
No! So their PERSONAL experience was also a proof. An individual proof!
What the trials did was to satisfy requirements to PRODUCE the medicine. Not to make it "work or not".
But sildenafil worked no matter trials would have never been done or would denied the effect because "sildenafil was very easy to produce at home". (Which is not the case, just for the example)
NOTE: Please try to participate without personal attacks or ad hominem "acid" comments.
Are ALL clinical trials, clinical studies and experiment results invariably published?
Who warrants unfavorable results are published as well?
Is the Pharma industry willing to admit mistakes and testing errors as well as biased tests and analysis?
Is it convenient for Pharma industries to publish favorable results to inexpensive non pharmaceutical treatment tests?
Why Pharma consistently diminishes testimonial proof?
Can testimonial proof be subject to formal scientific analysis and not only to rejection?
An example: Pfizer was conducting trials for Sildenafil as a potential blood pressure regulator. Subjects under trial started reporting a totally different outcome, TOTALLY OUT OF THE TRIAL SCOPE.
"I am having strong erections" they started saying.
Those were testimonies. The trials were NOT measuring erection rates at all!
Did or did it not Viagra's discovery come out of seriously considering the testimonial evidence?
Did such testimonials led to clinical trials on the precise ED subject?
But going farther:
Would the trials have "denied" sildenafil effects on erectile disfunction, could this convince the witnessing subjects that "after all sildenafil was not working and their erections were a "placebo" effect"?
No! So their PERSONAL experience was also a proof. An individual proof!
What the trials did was to satisfy requirements to PRODUCE the medicine. Not to make it "work or not".
But sildenafil worked no matter trials would have never been done or would denied the effect because "sildenafil was very easy to produce at home". (Which is not the case, just for the example)
NOTE: Please try to participate without personal attacks or ad hominem "acid" comments.
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