BS. Many people, many companies, including large corporations in many cases decide to self-insure.[/quoter]Companies, yes, because they can average out their own numerous costs; this is not the case for insurable risks on individual levels.
The money is set aside, it actually bears interest, and the interest goes back into the budget. If you can afford the initial outlay to put the money into the separate account to begin with, then this is a much more desirable option than paying an insurance company as you go.
that depends on the magnitude and expected frequency of th einsured event's occurrence. If you live on the egde of a flood zone and your house gets flooded once a year, you can "self-insure" for damages; it would be irational to do otherwise for a risk with probability of 1, because then the insurance company would charge more per year (due to administrative overhead) that you would per yourself to repair your house every spring.
Contrawise, it would be ridiculous for you to self-insure against a hurricane if you lived in mid-west -- only a small numer of houses get destroyed each year, but the magnitude of damage is monumental. You would have to put aside the entire cost of the re-building house, and chances are that the fund wouldn't get used anyway! In this case, as in vast majority of cases, it's far more efficient to spread the risk via third-party insurance. Same goes for medical services -- nobody wants to keep $1M in stock in case they need a life-saving heart surgery, yet this is what medical selkf-insurance would require.
Why the fsck am I educating you on the basics of insurance? You always act like an economics buff, yet you repeatedly demonstrate that you don't understand economic theory, and instead are a "stamp collector" of economics, collecting libertarian evangelical trivia without understanding the economic theory behind it.
And the cause is just irrelevant, huh?
yes, it's relevant -- it shows that even though there is demand for risk aversion, this particular risk is not an insurable risk.
It tells me you don't like answering direct questions.
i did answer the question. it took that long for society to mature enough to recognize the value of social safety net. Governments move slowly, and it's no surprise. What's curious is that the market never stepped up to the task of providing unemployment insurance, a fact which you ignore by concluding (begging the question, really) that there was no demand.
Provide historical data from around the turn of the 20th century showing this demand. Or was there demand simply because you believe there should have been?
No, demand is
always there, because humans are
always risk-averse. For any insurable risk outside the completely trivial (like the loss of your lollypop), there would be insurance market. The rate and magnituide of the risk would determine the size of the market and the relationship between premiums and payoffs, but it wouldn't have effect on the market's sheer existence. We have insurance for, like,
everything -- but not for unemployment, even though unemployment is a common and extremely deleterious risk, mandating strong demand for insurance.
The bottom line is, YOU HAVE NOT SHOWN THAT THERE ACTUALLY WAS SUCH A DEMAND. And as YOU are the one making the claim, it is up to YOU to support it.
Yes, I have shown it. What
you haven't done, is argue that private unemployment insurance is possible. Instead, you simply
assume that every demand meets a suppy, and
conclude that the lack of supply of private unemployment insurance indicates lack of demand. This arguing from assumed conclusion to premises is SOOO xian apologetic, it's not even funny.
You haven't shown that there was!
yes, I have; I have soundly argued that there is demand for unemployment protection due to humans' risk-averse nature. Even if the demand was small, there would have been a
small market for priuvate unemployment insurance; but there isn't
any. There is health insurance for
pets, but there is no unemployment insurance -- for you to claim that the latter fact is due to lack of demand, is simply intellectually dishonest demagoguery.
Several reasons. Most importantly being the fact that government did not grant themselves a monopoly in education or retirement.
You keep claiming that government granted itself legal monopoly on unemployment protection, but you aren't supporting this claim. How come?