Grammatron said:
Not forced, but every country that had slaves or a form of slavery happend because the government allowed it to happen or made laws in such a way that slavery could exist.
Well, exactly. Everything that isn't outlawed is able to be done. I dont' see how allowing people to do something is the same thing as "causing" them to do it.
The people did it of their own free will, they choose to aquire and use slaves. People throughout history have done it with and without the conesnt of government. In fact we still have issues with human slavery today on the black market, which is done illigally, how is it that governments are "causing" or supporting this slavery when it is in fact illigal?
Any argument that it is the "governments fault" completely ignores that all of those that participated did so over their own free will. Let us assume that there was no clause in the constitution one way or the other about slavery. Do you claim then that no one would have engaged in slavery? My claim is that unless A GOVERNMENT explicitly makes a law saying that it is illegal and then enforces that law then slavery can and will exist, which is to say that government is required to prevent slavery.
We or course know this of even of tribes who had no formal government, but still had slavery.
Big government allowed them to be slave owners and took away every means they had of freeing themselves.
LOL, so now you call even the initial "bare bones" government of the US "big". As I stated, without the government explicitly preventing slavery then everyone is subject to its possibility. The only thing that makes slavery work is might, might makes right. People in power using those that are not in power, just like animals.
What exactly is the difference between using a human to do labor or using a horse or ox? It is all just power and ability. If a person has the ability to control another living thing for his own benefit, be it a fellow human or another animal, and that person has the desire to do so, then they will.
Okay: Name one time it was the result of a free market.
The free market, you go and on about it, but of course the very definition of "free market" is even up for debate. What exactly is a" free market"? It is a market that is not controlled by any outside means. Well, WTF does that mean? Some economists, and I agree with them, state that a free market cannot exist in a capitalist system, because capital itself is a controlling force on the market, and this is correct. The truth is that a there is no such thing as a free market, it is a theoretical concept that is not and cannot be real.
By free-market I assume that you mean a market with no legal controls effecting it, in which case that means that all actions would be legal, including slavery. A free-market is just a market where the price of goods determined only by the supply and demand of goods. In reality discussing slavery and free markets is meaningless, even if free markets did exist, which they do not and cannot.
Slavery in a free-market just means a market for salves where the cost of slaves is determined by the supply of slaves compared to the demand for them. I would say that this generally applies to slavery in the Americas when slaves were indeed bought and sold, as in some cases they were simply acquired outright by capture and never bought or sold.
Now, let's go more into "free-markets".
I'll look at a definition:
http://economics.about.com/library/glossary/bldef-free-market-economy.htm
A free market economy is an economy in which the allocation for resources is determined only by their supply and the demand for them. This is mainly a theoretical concept as every country, even capitalist ones, places some restrictions on the ownership and exchange of commodities.
This is a little misleading because in fact capitalism itself is by definition a force on the market that creates restrictions. Capitalism is a system where individuals use capital to control resources, so capital itself then becomes a controlling factor on the market, thus immediately eliminating the free market.
In truth a free market can only exist where there is ZERO accumulation of capital, which is to say a non-capitalist system where no one can acquire wealth. The existence of wealth is by its very nature a disruption to the free market. This is why a free market is only a theoretical concept that cannot ever actually exist.
A market without "government" pressures on the market is still a market with private pressures other than supply and demand of goods on the market.
There are other reason why a free market cannot exist as well, and that is because human being are not rational. A free market can only exist when the price of goods is determines only by their supply and demand, yet we know that many things go into percieved value other then supply and demand, such as labor value, that is the cost of the labor to produce the goods, which again can be affected by many things other then the supply and demand of labor, perception of supply and perception of demand, which may or may not be accurate (hurry now while supplies last!), the size of the market, the ability to afford the goods, i.e. food may be in higher demand by a mass of starving poor then it is by a few wealthy businessmen, but put the same food in the two markets and you will get differnet prices. Put a candy bar in a store in Beverly Hills and you can charge $2.00 for it, even though the demand may not be great, put it in Etheopia in the middle of 1,000 starving people and you may still only be able to get $0.50 for it. Gasoline is an obvious example here too as it costs more in wealthy areas and less in poor areas, but the demand is surely the same, the price is determined by abiliy to pay.
You see, all of these things break the theoretical "free market".
There is no free market, never has been, never will be.
You may also want to read:
http://www.cesc.net/cescweb/freemoney.html
http://www.cesc.net/cescweb/marketeconomy.html