boooeee
Dart Fener
- Joined
- Aug 14, 2002
- Messages
- 2,671
I was reading through Volume 3 of Feynman's Lectures on Physics and he made the following remark on the correlation between a particle's spin and whether it is a boson or fermion:
Which got me wondering, has anybody since then come up with a simpler explanation of this fact, or are you damned to learn quantum field theory if you truly want to understand it?
Why is it that particles with half-integral spin are Fermi particles whose amplitudes add with the minus sign, whereas particles with integral spin are Bose particles whose amplitudes add with the positive sign? An explanation has been worked out by Pauli from complicated arguments of quantum field theory and relativity......It appears to be one of the few places in physics where there is a rule that can be stated very simply, but for which no one has found a simple and easy explanation
Which got me wondering, has anybody since then come up with a simpler explanation of this fact, or are you damned to learn quantum field theory if you truly want to understand it?