Just read this about a man in Melbourne.
Seems that he went to a prostitute and she had his kid. He was paying about $100 a week on an informal agreement to her but his circumstances had changed and the matter is in court because he stopped paying her.
However the possibility does exist for the man to sue either the woman or the company that she works for because it's illegal to have sex without a condom.
I can understand the point the man is making. I would have thought that the woman would still be on birth control as a precaution in case something goes wrong, and I'd guess that there would be a duty of care on the part of the prostitute to ensure that nothing like this happens.
Yet the man was incredibly stupid and still engaged in an illegal act, and this was a consequence of his actions. I would assume that from a legal perspective the man managed to get himself into this issue by giving the woman child support money even if it was an informal agreement.
So what does everyone else think?
Seems that he went to a prostitute and she had his kid. He was paying about $100 a week on an informal agreement to her but his circumstances had changed and the matter is in court because he stopped paying her.
However the possibility does exist for the man to sue either the woman or the company that she works for because it's illegal to have sex without a condom.
I can understand the point the man is making. I would have thought that the woman would still be on birth control as a precaution in case something goes wrong, and I'd guess that there would be a duty of care on the part of the prostitute to ensure that nothing like this happens.
Yet the man was incredibly stupid and still engaged in an illegal act, and this was a consequence of his actions. I would assume that from a legal perspective the man managed to get himself into this issue by giving the woman child support money even if it was an informal agreement.
So what does everyone else think?
