Hmmm, big piece of information missing. Are you showing any clinical signs of the disease, or is your probability of infection that of the general background population?
The thing is, to get the predictive value of a test (which is what Wrath is asking), you need to know the incidence of the condition
in the population representative of the individual being tested. This is obviously higher if that population is "sick people with clinical signs typical of the disease in question". In fact, the relevant figure is the clinical probability that this individual is affected.
I also need to know if the figure of "99% accurate" refers particularly to specificity. Specificity is the percentage of positive results which are correct (i.e. identify an affected individual) and is the important parameter here. Sensitivity, on the other hand, is the percentage of negative results which are correct (i.e. identify an unaffected individual). The two together may be loosely combined and referred to as "accuracy", but if we are talking about a positive result, it is the specificity figure one needs to know.
However, if we assume for the moment that Wrath's probability of being affected is the same as the general population, that is 0.1%, and that the specificity of the test is 99% (I don't really care about sensitivity in this situation), a positive result is 90.98% likely to be wrong and 9.02% likely to be correct.
So there is only (approximately) a 9% chance that Wrath actually has the condition.
(I'm sorry, I cheated, I have a spreadsheet on my computer to produce this information and a pretty graph that demonstrates how the predictive value of a positive or a negative result varies with clinical probability of infection, and sensitivity and specificity of the test.)
Rolfe.