Nostradamus

[outofmymind033]

So last night i was watching Nostradamus: 500 years later on the history channel and some of his quatrains use the word germany as seen her in quatrain 3:32

"The great tomb of the people of Aquitaine Will approach near to Tuscany, When Mars will be in the corner of Germany And in the land of the Mantuan people."

Now i must ask, he lived in the 16th century, correct? Well germany was formed in the late 19th century. During his time it was named the Holy Roman Empire. And him being French, why would he refer to it as germany?

 

[hgc]

Hmmm. And Tacitus wrote a book in the 1st century called Germania. I wonder what he was referring to.

The word "Germany" was around along time before the unified nation-state of Germany of the 19th century.

 

[theMark]

My first question would be: does it also say "germany" in the original which he wrote it in french?
My next question, having inherited a few books on nostradamus from my grandfather, would be: why is his writing utterly non-understandable, and why are those that try to "decode" it, no better at it than if they were simply making it up as they go along? e.g. California is still there ("earthquake in 1999"), prince charles too, and lots of other things.
Frankly, Nosti has lost his appeal to me a loooong time ago. His writing simply does not deliver, and his "interpreters" are even worse.
His quartrains fit much better into his own life and time if seen as encrypted anecdotes than into the future.


Oh, and just try "Germany 16th century" in Google. Though it did not exist as the united "Germany", there were lots of smaller states grouped into the "Holy Roman Empire of the german nation".

Just my 2c, of course...