Chaos
Penultimate Amazing
- Joined
- Sep 15, 2003
- Messages
- 10,611
In the aftermath of school massacre in Germany a few days ago, the usual suspects around here are back preaching the same old sermon about "killer games" (i.e. "violent" video games) being the cause for all this. Well, I guess you are all familiar with the gist of the argument; I´m pretty sure similar complaints were once lodged about rock music and, before that, about secular literature.
Before I continue, I should say that, even though I do play plenty of computer games, I have never played any of the specific games that have been called "killer games", which for this discussion is a good thing because it gives me the same experience with them that all the "outlaw those killer games" crowd has.
Anyway, besides the can of worms of what actually constitutes a "killer game", there´s something else that bugs me - the question of causality. We all know the claim that people who play violent will become violent in reality. Even if we leave out the possibility that there is no causality at all (which is not all that unlikely), how about the third possibilty?
What I mean is, what if the causality is the other way around? What if the tendency to be drawn to the more brutal and explicitly violent games of a genre, or to the more violent genres in general (say, to prefer Ultimate Chainsaw Bloodbath over My Little Pony 3D) is a symptom of the same condition (I hesitate to call it a disorder or illness just yet) that also causes people to react to a certain set of environmental conditions, such as years of nonstop bullying at school, with an explosion of violence rather than in a less wantonly destructive way?
This hypothesies has several advantages, among them explaining why school killers apparently tend to be assiociated with "killer games" without requiring an explanation while most people who play these games do not go berserk in real life.
It also has disadvantages, the most striking of which is destroying the basis for the polemics of politicians who wish to be perceived as adressing a problem without having to do anything inconvenient, such as actually solving the problem.
So, what do you think?
Before I continue, I should say that, even though I do play plenty of computer games, I have never played any of the specific games that have been called "killer games", which for this discussion is a good thing because it gives me the same experience with them that all the "outlaw those killer games" crowd has.
Anyway, besides the can of worms of what actually constitutes a "killer game", there´s something else that bugs me - the question of causality. We all know the claim that people who play violent will become violent in reality. Even if we leave out the possibility that there is no causality at all (which is not all that unlikely), how about the third possibilty?
What I mean is, what if the causality is the other way around? What if the tendency to be drawn to the more brutal and explicitly violent games of a genre, or to the more violent genres in general (say, to prefer Ultimate Chainsaw Bloodbath over My Little Pony 3D) is a symptom of the same condition (I hesitate to call it a disorder or illness just yet) that also causes people to react to a certain set of environmental conditions, such as years of nonstop bullying at school, with an explosion of violence rather than in a less wantonly destructive way?
This hypothesies has several advantages, among them explaining why school killers apparently tend to be assiociated with "killer games" without requiring an explanation while most people who play these games do not go berserk in real life.
It also has disadvantages, the most striking of which is destroying the basis for the polemics of politicians who wish to be perceived as adressing a problem without having to do anything inconvenient, such as actually solving the problem.
So, what do you think?