BS Investigator
Critical Thinker
- Joined
- Jul 9, 2005
- Messages
- 330
Some have argued that the term "True Skeptic" is a fallacy.
Do you agree?
Definition:
Some opponents of the term True Skeptic claim that it falls under the "No True Scotsman" fallacy. On the surface, this may seem like a no-brainer. It is, indeed.
This from the real wiki entry for "No True Scotsman Fallacy":
I would argue that a skeptic who believes the extraordinary claims of religion, IE Resurrection, parting the Red Sea, Afterlife, and so on - with zero valid evidence is not a True Skeptic, in the same way that a teetotaler who slams 20 whiskey shots in a row a few times a week is not True Teetotaler.
Thoughts?
Do you agree?
Definition:
True Skeptic: One who requires valid scientific evidence for extraordinary claims, without exception.
Some opponents of the term True Skeptic claim that it falls under the "No True Scotsman" fallacy. On the surface, this may seem like a no-brainer. It is, indeed.
This from the real wiki entry for "No True Scotsman Fallacy":
Argument: "No Scotsman puts sugar on his porridge."
Reply: "But my uncle Angus likes sugar with his porridge."
Rebuttal: "Ah yes, but no true Scotsman puts sugar on his porridge."
When considering this argument in a context of rhetorical logic, this is a fallacy if the predicate ("putting sugar on porridge") is not actually contradictory for the accepted definition of the subject ("Scotsman"), or if the definition of the subject is silently adjusted after the fact to make the rebuttal work.
Some elements or actions are exclusively contradictory to the subject, and therefore aren't fallacies. The statement "No true vegetarian would eat a beef steak" is not fallacious because it follows from the accepted definition of "vegetarian:" Eating meat, by definition, disqualifies a (present-tense) categorization among vegetarians, and the further value judgement between a "true vegetarian" and the implied "false vegetarian" cannot likewise be categorized as a fallacy, given the clear disjunction. In logic, the mutually exclusive contradiction is called a logical disjunction.
I would argue that a skeptic who believes the extraordinary claims of religion, IE Resurrection, parting the Red Sea, Afterlife, and so on - with zero valid evidence is not a True Skeptic, in the same way that a teetotaler who slams 20 whiskey shots in a row a few times a week is not True Teetotaler.
Thoughts?