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How best to divide Humanity

Are the secularists taking over the US?

  • Yes.

    Votes: 0 0.0%
  • No, the US is still basically a religious nation and that isn't changing.

    Votes: 0 0.0%
  • No, the US has always been a secular nation.

    Votes: 0 0.0%
  • ...mumble...shemp...mumble...Planet X...mumble...FOUR DOLLARS?!?...getouttahere...

    Votes: 0 0.0%

  • Total voters
    0
GoodPropaganda:
OK, I put in a joke option and a "why bother".
True, but I didn't agree with those options either.
But you answered anyway.
You're going by characteristics that have grown up due to territorial barriers. Barriers which are being broken today. How many more generations will your definition of race last (assuming that it works to begin with)? Not long, unless it's backed up by some other kind of division that prevents interbreeding.
In a previous thread I said that the term "race", applied to the human species, would probably become meaningless within the next few hundred years.

What I find irritating is the PC-crowd who wish to solve racial tensions by simply claiming that races don't exist. Ostrich, head, sand.
 
Surely there has to be more than 6 genes different between me and my own mother!!

For sure. But only six genes (maybe 8) determined your skin color. Yet skin color is the way people are categorized and divided in the world. It might have been a good way (or easy way) in the past, but I don't see how it can continue and claim to be scientific.

Flick
 
Flick,
So when you say "more than 6 unique genes to qualify as a natural kind", you mean "a lot more than 6".


DanishDynamite
In a previous thread I said that the term "race", applied to the human species, would probably become meaningless within the next few hundred years.
And how will you know when that moment arrives?
Will you or your descendants be sat there with your "Gene-o-meter" saying, "The lines are blurring... The lines are blurring... They're gone!!"

Because if you can't recognise that moment, then you don't know what you mean by "race".
 
So when you say "more than 6 unique genes to qualify as a natural kind", you mean "a lot more than 6".

At this point it could be any six... I find the fact that we choose the six for skin color to be our classification system to be problematic.

http://www.foxnews.com/story/0,2933,43298,00.html

Flick
 
GoodPropaganda:
And how will you know when that moment arrives?
Will you or your descendants be sat there with your "Gene-o-meter" saying, "The lines are blurring... The lines are blurring... They're gone!!"

Because if you can't recognise that moment, then you don't know what you mean by "race".
Bollocks.

Can we agree that there are subspecies among dogs? Good. Now suppose you gathered all members of each subspecies and placed them in a distinct geographic area. Say, all Great Danes in Denmark, all German Shephards in north Germany, all Collies in south Germany, etc, etc. Now let them breed as they wish. Can you tell me at what point these subspecies can no longer be said to exist? If not, does that mean the subspecies did not exist to begin with?
 
Here we go...

DanishDynamite said:
GoodPropaganda: Bollocks.

Can we agree that there are subspecies among dogs? Good. Now suppose you gathered all members of each subspecies and placed them in a distinct geographic area. Say, all Great Danes in Denmark, all German Shephards in north Germany, all Collies in south Germany, etc, etc. Now let them breed as they wish. Can you tell me at what point these subspecies can no longer be said to exist? If not, does that mean the subspecies did not exist to begin with?

Your "dogs example" presupposes that there are analogous human subspecies, or "races". Even geneticists and anthropologists can't agree on this, so on what basis do you assert that there are human "races"?

I raised a similar point in my last post in this thread.

I assumed that you didn't answer me because you were either busy or just not interested in the topic anymore, so I let it go. Does your reply here mean that your have both the time and the desire to engage the topic again, either here or in the other thread? ;)
 
DanishDynamite,
One of us is misunderstanding the other.
To say that "you don't know what you mean by race" is not the same as saying that "race/dog breeds etc do no exist" I'm quite happy to agree that divisions can be made. I'm just wondering about the usefulness and the consistency of these divisions.


Let's say that there are two races: African/Caucasian.
You cannot define the conditions under which this classification becomes meaningless. I say that is because you do not know what it is that seperates the two groups at the moment.

Is the seperation:
Africans have genes XxYyZz but not AaBbCc
and Caucasians have genes AaBbCc but not XxYyZz
Which may well beome meaningless, because through interbreeding some unclassifyable people may arise.

Or is it that
Africans have more genes from XxYyZz than from AaBbCc eg:XxYbZc
and Caucasians have more genes from AaBbCc than from XxYyZz eg:XABBCz
Starting with XxYxZz and AaBbCc, eventually the population may include many different variations, including XxYbCC - which doesn't fit into the classification.


Or is it that races don't become fewer, they become more numerous (Possibly meaninglessly numerous)

Or does mixed race become a race in itself and all others become extinct?
Or do you base race on mitochondrial DNA [which you only inherit from your mother] or on the Y-chromosome [which you only inherit from you father (if you're a son)] These races won't mix. Everyone is the "mitochondrial-race" of their mother, except for those where a mutation occurs. (Somebody traced back this DNA to seven different "Eves", but I'm not sure why they chose seven instead of any other number).


If the different breeds of dog inter-breed (I don't know why you seperated them geographically), then the current classifications would become meaningless and new classifications would have to be invented. This will always be possible. But it implies that the classifications are fluid, they are not set in stone. Descendants of collies and hounds (currently different breeds) may find themselves in the same future classification. Whereas, other descendants of two collies (currently the same breed) may find themselves in different future classifications.

Look up above at the second definition of African/Caucasian.
Two Africans (XxYbZc and XAYYZc) can give birth to a Caucasian (XAbYcc)
That could be further indication that the system is flawed. I, however, am willing to accept that a child may not be the same race as its biological parents. After all, we are only classifying people in one of many possible ways.

So, do you know which of the possible classification systems you are supporting? I'll repeat (hoping that you'll now understand):

If you do not know when your classification breaks down (becomes meaningless), then you do not know what you mean by "race".
 
Starfall,

Let me answer your post in reverse order.
I assumed that you didn't answer me because you were either busy or just not interested in the topic anymore, so I let it go. Does your reply here mean that your have both the time and the desire to engage the topic again, either here or in the other thread?
I admit it, I was getting bored. There were several reasons for this. Firstly, the thread was mostly reduced to you and me, and since we were rarely on-line simultanously, most of a day would pass between point and counterpoint. The thread would often disappear off page 1. Secondly, I felt we had reached an impasse.

In regard to my willingness to continue, well....why not. For a while at least. And lets continue here, since we seem to have at least one other participant, GoodPropaganda.

Anyway, nice to see you're still around. :)
Your "dogs example" presupposes that there are analogous human subspecies, or "races". Even geneticists and anthropologists can't agree on this, so on what basis do you assert that there are human "races"?
On the same basis that other subspecies are catagorized. I've already given reasons why the categorization within humans is not consensual. I'll repost them from the other thread:

1. First and foremost is the pollution of Political Correctness. Race, among humans, is a very touchy subject, for historical reasons.
2. The term "subspecies/race" is not the best defined taxonomic term.
3. The fact that the human species has spread to all corners of the world and that some interbreeding takes place along the boundaries.

GoodPropaganda:
One of us is misunderstanding the other.
To say that "you don't know what you mean by race" is not the same as saying that "race/dog breeds etc do no exist" I'm quite happy to agree that divisions can be made. I'm just wondering about the usefulness and the consistency of these divisions.
Fair enough.
Let's say that there are two races: African/Caucasian.
You cannot define the conditions under which this classification becomes meaningless. I say that is because you do not know what it is that seperates the two groups at the moment.
I certainly don't know what seperates them because you haven't defined them.
Is the seperation:
Africans have genes XxYyZz but not AaBbCc
and Caucasians have genes AaBbCc but not XxYyZz
Which may well beome meaningless, because through interbreeding some unclassifyable people may arise.

Or is it that
Africans have more genes from XxYyZz than from AaBbCc eg:XxYbZc
and Caucasians have more genes from AaBbCc than from XxYyZz eg:XABBCz
Starting with XxYxZz and AaBbCc, eventually the population may include many different variations, including XxYbCC - which doesn't fit into the classification.

Or is it that races don't become fewer, they become more numerous (Possibly meaninglessly numerous)

Or does mixed race become a race in itself and all others become extinct?
Or do you base race on mitochondrial DNA [which you only inherit from your mother] or on the Y-chromosome [which you only inherit from you father (if you're a son)] These races won't mix. Everyone is the "mitochondrial-race" of their mother, except for those where a mutation occurs. (Somebody traced back this DNA to seven different "Eves", but I'm not sure why they chose seven instead of any other number).
I would base race on the scientific definition of the term. I'll grant you that this definition leaves some wiggle room. That doesn't mean it isn't useful.
If the different breeds of dog inter-breed (I don't know why you seperated them geographically),...
I seperated them geographically for two reasons. Firstly because that makes them (to a large extent) reproductively isolated, which is part of the definition of races. And secondly, because it would mirror the geographically varying characteristics of the human species.
...then the current classifications would become meaningless and new classifications would have to be invented. This will always be possible. But it implies that the classifications are fluid, they are not set in stone. Descendants of collies and hounds (currently different breeds) may find themselves in the same future classification. Whereas, other descendants of two collies (currently the same breed) may find themselves in different future classifications.
Perhaps.I suspect that after sufficient interbreeding, the term "race" would loose all meaning.
Look up above at the second definition of African/Caucasian.
Two Africans (XxYbZc and XAYYZc) can give birth to a Caucasian (XAbYcc)
Which underscores why this particular classification scheme of yours isn't very usefull.
That could be further indication that the system is flawed. I, however, am willing to accept that a child may not be the same race as its biological parents. After all, we are only classifying people in one of many possible ways.
Let's try to stick to the scientific definition. If subspecies A would have a good chance of being born to two subspecies B parents, the classification scheme wouldn't be very useful.
So, do you know which of the possible classification systems you are supporting?
I support a classification scheme which is in line with the scientific definition and is usefull.
I'll repeat (hoping that you'll now understand):

If you do not know when your classification breaks down (becomes meaningless), then you do not know what you mean by "race".
And I'll repeat that this is a meaningles contention. In the other thread, referenced by Starfall, I mentioned the two subspecies of the White Rhino: the northern and the southern. I also mentioned that apart from their geographic seperation, the only distinction was some light behavioural differences. If you now remove the geographic seperation and thus let the two subspecies interbreed, at what point will the two subspecies no longer exist? I don't know. Do you? Does this fact mean that the seperation into subspecies was meaningless?
 
DanishDynamite
I mentioned the two subspecies of the White Rhino: the northern and the southern. I also mentioned that apart from their geographic seperation, the only distinction was some light behavioural differences. If you now remove the geographic seperation and thus let the two subspecies interbreed, at what point will the two subspecies no longer exist? I don't know. Do you? Does this fact mean that the seperation into subspecies was meaningless?
I don't know at what point the two subspecies no longer exist.
This does make the two subspecies meaningless to me. It may not be meaningless to an expert on rhinos. But to me it is, because I don't know what the reasoning behind the division is. That is the point that I'm trying to get across.

I gave a range of options for how people can be divided genetically. I showed how, whilst the divisions could make sense to begin with, they inevitably fall apart when interbreeding occurs. Even so, the divisions would make sense because I know what their shortfalls are and thus when to abandon them.

You on the other hand know nothing about the divisions of race except that they are scientific and based on geographical location (probably up to about 1400 AD). That is why you don't know when they fall apart. Some scientists think that they already have.
Many individuals can be classified into more than one race or into none. Races are defined in terms of membership in populations; they represent persons with the same pool of ancestors. Except for brothers and sisters, however, virtually no individuals have precisely the same ancestors. It is impossible to divide all humans into a small number of discrete social, biological, or geographic groups in such a way that everybody belongs to one and only one.

"Races, Classification of," Microsoft(R) Encarta(R) 98 Encyclopedia. (c) 1993-1997 Microsoft Corporation. All rights reserved.
 
DanishDynamite said:
Anyway, nice to see you're still around. :)

You, too. I don't post much, but I usually lurk fairly often, and try to contribute occasionally. Thanks for responding..


DanishDynamite said:
I've already given reasons why the categorization within humans is not consensual. I'll repost them from the other thread:

1. First and foremost is the pollution of Political Correctness. Race, among humans, is a very touchy subject, for historical reasons.
2. The term "subspecies/race" is not the best defined taxonomic term.
3. The fact that the human species has spread to all corners of the world and that some interbreeding takes place along the boundaries.

Actually, your latest responses to me and GoodPropaganda kind of dovetail with my last post in the other thread. So, in the interests of closure on that other thread, I'll re-post my last response from there and then we can continue...

DanishDynamite said:
I almost hate to mention the various subspecies of dogs again, but please tell me how their classification isn't based on "arbitrary groupings of physical attributes". And if you don't feel the use of subspecies among dogs is relevant, consider the subspecies of the Northern White Rhino and the Southern White Rhino. The only difference between these two subspecies (aside from their geographical seperation) is a slight behavioural difference.

...

The taxonomic term "subspecies/race" is, to my knowledge, widely accepted within the scientific world. Ask any rhino expert whether they feel the classification of White Rhinos into a northern and southern type is generally accepted.

Yes, there is widespread agreement among scientists about using current dog breeds, the Harvard Spectral Classification Scheme, Rhino subspecies, etc. But these particular arbitrary taxonomies are considered scientific only because scientists overwhelmingly agree to use them.

Unlike dogs and rhinos, etc., there is no consensus about subspecies as applied to humans. Some scientists think that the concept doesn't apply to humans. Others think that it applies but can't agree on how, which is why you see different racial taxonomies being proposed. Clearly, scientists do not overwhelmingly agree on "race", so "race" cannot be considered scientific by consensus.

Now, you can advocate that human "racial" groups should be adopted by everyone, but on what basis, given that the scientists themselves cannot agree on this? You can explain away the lack of consensus by blaming "Political Correctness", but this presupposes that there is some compelling reason for scientists to all agree on "race" in the first place. What is that reason?
 
GoodPropaganda:
I don't know at what point the two subspecies no longer exist.
This does make the two subspecies meaningless to me. It may not be meaningless to an expert on rhinos. But to me it is, because I don't know what the reasoning behind the division is. That is the point that I'm trying to get across.
I understand your confusion. I and (I pressume) you are not taxonomists/biologists/anthropologists. We are, however, intelligent people who have the ability to use google and think logically. :)

The fact that you find the widely accepted division of White Rhinos into two subspecies meaningless, is however itself meaningless, unless it is because you disagree with the scientific definition of subspecies. And I have previously shown (in the other thread) that subspecies and race mean the same thing.
I gave a range of options for how people can be divided genetically. I showed how, whilst the divisions could make sense to begin with, they inevitably fall apart when interbreeding occurs. Even so, the divisions would make sense because I know what their shortfalls are and thus when to abandon them.
Yes you did. However, as I am not a taxonomist, I am not qualified to discern which (if any) of your proposed schemes would be the most usefull scheme to use.

Besides, do people generally (or taxonomists, for that matter) use genetics to determine what race a particular dog is?
You on the other hand know nothing about the divisions of race except that they are scientific and based on geographical location (probably up to about 1400 AD).
What do you mean by "probably up to about 1400 AD"? Did the definition of subspecies change at this point?
That is why you don't know when they fall apart.
As you likewise did not know when the dog races no longer existed. What is your point?
Some scientists think that they already have.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Many individuals can be classified into more than one race or into none. Races are defined in terms of membership in populations; they represent persons with the same pool of ancestors. Except for brothers and sisters, however, virtually no individuals have precisely the same ancestors. It is impossible to divide all humans into a small number of discrete social, biological, or geographic groups in such a way that everybody belongs to one and only one.

"Races, Classification of," Microsoft(R) Encarta(R) 98 Encyclopedia. (c) 1993-1997 Microsoft Corporation. All rights reserved.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Is the above quote from an encyclopedia? What scietific relevance does that have? Nevermind, it doesn't matter. The bottom line, as I have mentioned many times in the other thread, is that given the scientific definition of races, they clearly exist in the human species, they are a useful classification scheme, and it is about time that the PC crowd are put in their place such that science can get on with its business.
 
DanishDynamite,
We're going to have to agree to differ (and perhaps not by much).
You seem to be saying that there is a meaningful, scientific reason for race but that you don't know exactly what it is. That's the only admission I'm trying to get out of you.

The advice of experts also leads you to say that race will eventually become meaningless, but you won't know when that happens until the experts tell you. Some experts already say we've reached that point. The expert I quoted was from Encarta98 (as it said in my original post).

And that's also where I got the date of 1400.
The races were divided into Mongolian, Caucasian, American, Ethiopian and Malayan based on the geographical locations of people at that time. Some of the labels have changed, but pretty much nothing else has. In spite of 600 years of various degrees of mixing.

Of course many people disagree with that system of five labels.
Do we divide Caucasian into Semitic/non-Semitic, Semitic in Jews and Arabs, both of those into how many divisions? And why choose those lines? It's arbitrary.

You have to know why you're divding if you want to know whether or not you have a good system of division. And not all things are equally easy to divide up. I'd expect that aliens will pretty much have the periodic table the same as us, gas/liquid/solid the same as us, integer/rational/real/complex numbers the same as us. Not every one of those is a certainty, but none would be a huge surprise. Would they divide subjects up into art/science? Who knows? I'm not saying that the last one is a meaningless division, but the division means different things to different people. Just like race.
 
Starfall:
Actually, your latest responses to me and GoodPropaganda kind of dovetail with my last post in the other thread. So, in the interests of closure on that other thread, I'll re-post my last response from there and then we can continue...
Fair enough.
Yes, there is widespread agreement among scientists about using current dog breeds, the Harvard Spectral Classification Scheme, Rhino subspecies, etc. But these particular arbitrary taxonomies are considered scientific only because scientists overwhelmingly agree to use them.
I suspect your contention here regarding when a classification can be considered scientific, is worthy of its own thread. Nevertheless, if the definition is widely agreed upon, why can't it be used on our own species?
Unlike dogs and rhinos, etc., there is no consensus about subspecies as applied to humans. Some scientists think that the concept doesn't apply to humans. Others think that it applies but can't agree on how, which is why you see different racial taxonomies being proposed. Clearly, scientists do not overwhelmingly agree on "race", so "race" cannot be considered scientific by consensus.
Scientists do overwhelmingly agree on race. You just admitted as much in your previous post. What is not agreed upon, is how this definition is to be applied to the human species.
Now, you can advocate that human "racial" groups should be adopted by everyone, but on what basis, given that the scientists themselves cannot agree on this?
I have previously stated that I am not an expert in this field. However, in my opinion, races in the human species could be usefully delineated by their historic reproductive isolation. I would thus categorize the Pygmies, the Aboriginies, and the Inuits as seperate races.
You can explain away the lack of consensus by blaming "Political Correctness", but this presupposes that there is some compelling reason for scientists to all agree on "race" in the first place. What is that reason?
I think I've already answered this. The reason is that it is scientifically useful.

Your wish to see the human species as a heterogenous mass where all genetic distinctions are just meaningless minute variations which shouldn't be classified, is anti-science, in my view. It is a willful negation of reality. Reality is that humans, across the globe, have adapted to their local environments and that these adaptations would be obvious, in my opinion, to any independent observer. Epicanthal folds are present is certain geographically distinct populations of humans, and not in others. Several hair types exist, which are also geographically distinct. Melanin levels at birth are geographically distinct. There is a multitude of geographic distinctions.

Why not classify these?
 
GoodPropaganda:
We're going to have to agree to differ (and perhaps not by much). You seem to be saying that there is a meaningful, scientific reason for race but that you don't know exactly what it is. That's the only admission I'm trying to get out of you.
I'm saying that local varients of the human species are obvious. I'm also sying that I don't have the background for classifying these varients according to the scientific definition. However, even without this background it is clear to me that a refusal to perform such a classification, is not grounded in science.
The advice of experts also leads you to say that race will eventually become meaningless, but you won't know when that happens until the experts tell you. Some experts already say we've reached that point. The expert I quoted was from Encarta98 (as it said in my original post).
It is not the advice of experts which leads me to conclude that race will probably soon be a meaningless concept within the human species. It is the fact that the geographic origin of birth has an ever decreasing effect on which member of the human species you breed with.
And that's also where I got the date of 1400.
The races were divided into Mongolian, Caucasian, American, Ethiopian and Malayan based on the geographical locations of people at that time. Some of the labels have changed, but pretty much nothing else has. In spite of 600 years of various degrees of mixing.
I'm curious why you think the term "race" was coined, if not for the fact that obvious physical differences existed.
Of course many people disagree with that system of five labels.
Do we divide Caucasian into Semitic/non-Semitic, Semitic in Jews and Arabs, both of those into how many divisions? And why choose those lines? It's arbitrary.
I agree that in some areas of the world, interbreeding has occured to a great degree, making classification difficult.
You have to know why you're divding if you want to know whether or not you have a good system of division. And not all things are equally easy to divide up. I'd expect that aliens will pretty much have the periodic table the same as us, gas/liquid/solid the same as us, integer/rational/real/complex numbers the same as us. Not every one of those is a certainty, but none would be a huge surprise. Would they divide subjects up into art/science? Who knows? I'm not saying that the last one is a meaningless division, but the division means different things to different people. Just like race.
I've already agreed that the taxonomic term "subspecies/race" is not the most well-defined. Nevertheless, it is a term widely accepted within the scientific community. Why is it widely accepted, if it is indeed meaningless?
 
DanishDynamite
Reality is that humans, across the globe, have adapted to their local environments and that these adaptations would be obvious, in my opinion, to any independent observer. Epicanthal folds are present is certain geographically distinct populations of humans, and not in others. Several hair types exist, which are also geographically distinct. Melanin levels at birth are geographically distinct. There is a multitude of geographic distinctions.

Why not classify these?
But eyes aren't all "this shape" or "that shape".
Hair is not either straight or curly. Mine's kind of inbetween.
Hair is not blonde or black, there are loads of shades.
Skin is not black or white.

Of course there are differences, but the ones you list are more "analogue" than "digital". The lines between different groups aren't clear cut. Unless you make the criteria more exact you'll always be left having to judge which group to classify some people as. Or count them as unclassifiable.

I can understand what Starfall means by there not being any agreement on a scientific definition of race. It's like classifing music. Sure Metallica are different to Mozart, but where do you draw the line between metal and rock, between rock and folk, between folk and jazz, between ...... Do you eventually get to Mozart having crossed nothing but blurry lines?
 
DanishDynamite said:
I suspect your contention here regarding when a classification can be considered scientific, is worthy of its own thread. Nevertheless, if the definition is widely agreed upon, why can't it be used on our own species?

Scientists apparently agree on the definition of subspecies, and they appear to agree that the concept applies to dogs and rhinos, among others. Scientists do not agree that there are human subspecies. Note that there are other species of animals with no subspecies. This does not mean that all of the animals within these species are genetically identical to each other, but that the variations are clinal (change smoothly across a population) at best, and do not follow any meaningful or clear boundaries.


DanishDynamite said:
Scientists do overwhelmingly agree on race. You just admitted as much in your previous post. What is not agreed upon, is how this definition is to be applied to the human species.

Scientists do not agree on how or even whether "race" is applicable to humans. Are you asserting that because scientists agree that there are dog breeds, they must also agree that there are human "races"?


DanishDynamite said:
I have previously stated that I am not an expert in this field. However, in my opinion, races in the human species could be usefully delineated by their historic reproductive isolation. I would thus categorize the Pygmies, the Aboriginies, and the Inuits as seperate races.

OK. Well, in my opinion, humans could be usefully and simultaneously delineated according to their susceptibilities to heart disease, diabetes, and cancers. Add schizophrenia, depression, and alcoholism into the mix and you'd potentially have many groupings that show little relation to geographic origins. There are many other potential and independent ways to classify people.


DanishDynamite said:
Your wish to see the human species as a heterogenous mass where all genetic distinctions are just meaningless minute variations which shouldn't be classified, is anti-science, in my view. It is a willful negation of reality.

I've never said that all human genetic distinctions are "meaningless minute variations", nor do I believe that. I suspect that you assume this because doing so makes it much easier for you to dismiss my position. To repeat what I've already stated more than once in the other thread, there are all sorts of genetic variations among humans. Unlike dogs and rhinos, however, scientists have not established any way to meaningfully group these variations into human subspecies.


DanishDynamite said:
Reality is that humans, across the globe, have adapted to their local environments and that these adaptations would be obvious, in my opinion, to any independent observer.

I've never disagreed with this. However, there don't appear to be any obvious natural boundaries as a result of these adaptations. You've already admitted that you agree with this, and that any racial taxonomy would be arbitrary. So, your argument seems to be: "Races exist because if scientists all agreed on an arbitrary group of races, it would then be like the Harvard Classification Scheme, which is scientifically useful."


DanishDynamite said:
Epicanthal folds are present is certain geographically distinct populations of humans, and not in others. Several hair types exist, which are also geographically distinct. Melanin levels at birth are geographically distinct. There is a multitude of geographic distinctions.

Why not classify these?

I think we should classify all genetic differences, regardless of whether or not they are based on geographical, mostly clinal, variation. Scientists cannot agree which groupings of these genetic differences are most meaningful, or even whether these groupings are meaningful enough to be considered "subspecies".

Why are you so convinced that there must be human subspecies, and that these subspecies must be based on geographically based genetic variance?
 

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