In the thread There is no evidence for God, poster case#46cw39 used the terms "inductive" and "deductive" in a manner I thought to be incorrect, so I challenged him. He responded, and yy2bggggs chimed in on my side. For the record, SumDood also challenged case#46cw39's definition, but on different grounds than I did.
I am still not convinced that case#46cw39 is correct, but I am less certain than when I challenged him. I started this thread so as not to derail the other.
Here are the relevant posts from that thread:
case#46cw39 said in this post:
After I challenged that definition, case#46cw39 said in this post:
yy2bggggs responded in this post:
Follow by case#46cw39 in this post:
My remembrance of induction and deduction is that the first is moving the specific to the general while the latter is moving from the general to the specific, but I suppose that may be another way of saying "less certain" vs. "certain." I'm just not convinced yet.
And to be clear: let's not get bogged down in a definition of "certain." We know that we're not dealing with mathematical certainty, but we should be able to understand, I think, the logical usage.
I am still not convinced that case#46cw39 is correct, but I am less certain than when I challenged him. I started this thread so as not to derail the other.
Here are the relevant posts from that thread:
case#46cw39 said in this post:
case#46cw39 said:Right and I've said just that. But there are two possible negative options:
(%) God existing is implausible, or
(1) God existing is impossible (scientifically certainly true, .95%).
The prior is an inductive, probables conclusion meaning I dont know (for sure) and that means agnosticism. The other is a deductive (scientifically, virtually) certain conclusion based on "complete" evidence as deduction requires. That's what it means to be an atheist (or Theist). I have not seen that evidence that is complete (both acceptable and sufficient), and so I am an agnostic.
After I challenged that definition, case#46cw39 said in this post:
case#46cs39 said:Well in reference to out current debate this is a good place to start - Internet Encyclopedia of Philosophy, a Peer reviewed Academic Resource ...
"...deductive arguments are those in which the truth of the conclusion is thought to be completely guaranteed and not just made probable by the truth of the premises, ...
http://www.iep.utm.edu/ded-ind/
[*So the the premises are said to be complete or able to guarantee the certain conclusion (scientific .95%) in deduction. The conclusion is merely probable in induction because the premises offer only partial support (incomplete).*]
For this debate of am I agnostic or an atheist the following is worth contemplating:
The difference between the two comes from the sort of relation the author or expositor of the argument takes there to be between the premises and the conclusion. If the author of the argument believes that the truth of the premises definitely establishes the truth of the conclusion due to definition, logical entailment or mathematical necessity, then the argument is deductive. If the author of the argument does not think that the truth of the premises definitely establishes the truth of the conclusion, but nonetheless believes that their truth provides good reason to believe the conclusion is probably true, then the argument is inductive.
http://www.iep.utm.edu/ded-ind/
An inductive, merely probable conclusion is supported by partial, incomplete evidence. It's equivalent to saying "I don't know (for sure)", and that equals agnosticism.
A deductive, definitely certain conclusion is supported by completely guaranteeing evidence. It's equivalent to saying "I know for sure."
I don't believe a deductive argument is possible, ergo I'm an agnostic. This is my take on it and how I use those terms. Someone asks me if I believe in God I say "I don't know for sure if there is no God or if there is. I'm an agnostic."
yy2bggggs responded in this post:
yy2bggggs said:The phrase "for sure" does not belong in parentheses. Putting it there suggests that to know is the same as to know for sure.
I know my car is in my driveway. I don't know that for sure, though. I think the demand for certainty or the focus on lack of certainty is overrated. I think I still get to claim that I know my car is in my driveway.
I might be wrong, but I'm probably not wrong. I'm fine with that.
Follow by case#46cw39 in this post:
case#46cw39 said:OK so it could be .. "I don't know for sure" meaning the virtual certainty of science set at .95%. If we say a conclusion is deductively certain true this is what we mean. And let's say that''s the same standard in life usually. So I type these letters and see them appear and am deductively certain (.95 % certain) my PC is working. So I would answer this question deductively in the affirmative: Yes. My computer certainly is working. Yes, your car is certainly in your driveway. This is a deduction and the 95% threshold of certainty we use. Some things we are certain of within this range, based on having complete deductive evidence.
This is equivalent to answering our "Is God a fiction? in the affirmative: Certainly yes. As deductively certain as you are of your car being in the garage or other scientific certainties, that magic 95+% scientific, deductive certainty of the atheist.
I can't get there.
My remembrance of induction and deduction is that the first is moving the specific to the general while the latter is moving from the general to the specific, but I suppose that may be another way of saying "less certain" vs. "certain." I'm just not convinced yet.
And to be clear: let's not get bogged down in a definition of "certain." We know that we're not dealing with mathematical certainty, but we should be able to understand, I think, the logical usage.