I didn't want to hijack the thread as my question is a part 2 to this debate.
The "pro-life" (I am just using this for brevity) argument is that the
if and when the fetus is determined to be a live, then this life supercedes the desires of the mother - thus no abortion. ( I am not interested at discussing when this happens. Lets just assume that it's what ever time you pick before natural birth)
While I am pro-choice my view has always been that abortion (unless life threatening or severe medical conditions) should be limited to the time when the fetus can not survive outside of the womb. There must be some point at which there is no turning back.
That said, here is my question; To me following the logical progression of the pro-life argument being made, the court(s) need to step in and clearly define children's rights.
So if the court (pro-lifers) decide that at some point the fetus's right to life supercedes the mothers right to an abortion then by extension how can you say that:
parents have the right to deny a child immunization? After all outside of the wacko fringe who think that vaccines cause autism the reality is that not being immunized puts a child at far greater risk! If the mother does not have the right to abort a fetus, why does she have the right to risk the child's life?
How is this different then hanging a baby out a balcony or driving without them buckled up?
JV parents have the right to refuse medical treatment like blood transfusions based on THEIR, NOT the child's religious beliefs. Will the court(s) speak on the behalf of the child who has no voice in this matter? After all religious beliefs is not a requirement for life but a blood transfusion could be.
that child's(once born) rights do not supercede the parents right to punish?
So wouldn't legal representation be required by law under this theory to every child before they are grounded? Ok, I might be over the top here, BUT really! How would the court decide then at what point the fetus/baby no longer has rights?
Discuss
The "pro-life" (I am just using this for brevity) argument is that the
if and when the fetus is determined to be a live, then this life supercedes the desires of the mother - thus no abortion. ( I am not interested at discussing when this happens. Lets just assume that it's what ever time you pick before natural birth)
While I am pro-choice my view has always been that abortion (unless life threatening or severe medical conditions) should be limited to the time when the fetus can not survive outside of the womb. There must be some point at which there is no turning back.
That said, here is my question; To me following the logical progression of the pro-life argument being made, the court(s) need to step in and clearly define children's rights.
So if the court (pro-lifers) decide that at some point the fetus's right to life supercedes the mothers right to an abortion then by extension how can you say that:
parents have the right to deny a child immunization? After all outside of the wacko fringe who think that vaccines cause autism the reality is that not being immunized puts a child at far greater risk! If the mother does not have the right to abort a fetus, why does she have the right to risk the child's life?
How is this different then hanging a baby out a balcony or driving without them buckled up?
JV parents have the right to refuse medical treatment like blood transfusions based on THEIR, NOT the child's religious beliefs. Will the court(s) speak on the behalf of the child who has no voice in this matter? After all religious beliefs is not a requirement for life but a blood transfusion could be.
that child's(once born) rights do not supercede the parents right to punish?
So wouldn't legal representation be required by law under this theory to every child before they are grounded? Ok, I might be over the top here, BUT really! How would the court decide then at what point the fetus/baby no longer has rights?
Discuss